SSC Section Officer (Commercial Audit) Solved Previous Question Paper

Conducted By:

Staff Selection Commission (SSC)

Subject:

General Awareness (GK)

Number of Questions:

75

Type:

Objective (Multiple Choice)

Part I (General Awareness)

1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for

(a) equality before law.

(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

(c) abolition of titles.

(d) abolition of untouchability.

2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for

(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.

(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.

(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.

(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.

3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?

(a) Three

(b) Five

(c) Six

(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an

(a) aristocracy

(b) absolute monarchy

(c) constitutional monarchy

(d) polity.

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by

(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.

(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.

(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.

(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister.

(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.

(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.

7. Who is called the 'Father of History'?

(a) Plutarch

(b) Herodotus

(c) Justin

(d) Pliny

8. The Vedas are known as

(a) Smriti.

(b) Sruti.

(c) Jnana.

(d) Siksha.

9. The members of Estimate Committee are

(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.

(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.

(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?

(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

(b) Chief Minister.

(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

(d) President.

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called

(a) Scarce currency

(b) Soft currency.

(c) Gold currency

(d) Hot currency.

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?

(a) GDP

(b) Disposable income

(c) NNP

(d) Per capita income

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in

(a) the agriculture sector.

(b) the factory sector.

(c) the service sector.

(d) All these sectors.

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is

(a) Territorial trade.

(b) Internal trade.

(c) International trade.

(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the

(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)

(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)

(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)

(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which

(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.

(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.

(c) Government loans are floated.

(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called

(a) Luxury goods.

(b) Expensive goods.

(c) Capital goods.

(d) Economic goods.

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by

(a) E. H. Chamberlin

(b) P. A. Samuelson

(c) J. Robinson

(d) A. Marshall

19. Smoke is formed due to

(a) solid dispersed in gas

(b) solid dispersed in liquid.

(c) gas dispersed in solid

(d) gas dispersed in gas.

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?

(a) Aluminum hydroxide

(b) Silver bromide

(c) Potassium nitrate

(d) Sodium chloride.

21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains

(a) methane and ethane

(b) methane and butane.

(c) propane and butane

(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.

22. Preparation of 'Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process

(a) Hydrolysis

(b) Oxidation

(c) Hydrogenation

(d) Ozonoloysis

23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?

(a) Blue

(b) Green

(c) Orange

(d) Red

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its

(a) better cleaning action.

(b) proper pigmental composition.

(c) high glorious nature.

(d) very low cost.

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?

(a) INSAT-A

(b) Aryabhata

(c) Bhaskara

(d) Rohini

26. What is the full form of 'AM' regarding radio broadcasting?

(a) Amplitude Movement

(b) Anywhere Movement

(c) Amplitude Matching

(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?

(a) Purandar Das

(b) Shyamal Bhatt

(c) Narsi Mehta

(d) Sant Gyaneshwar

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?

(a) Dengu fever

(b) Filariasis

(c) Sleeping sickness

(d) Malaria

29. What is the principal one of aluminium?

(a) Dolomite

(b) Copper

(c) Lignite

(d) Bauxite

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?

(a) The US

(b) Norway

(c) India

(d) The UK

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the

(a) Planning Commission

(b) National Development Council

(c) The Union Cabinet

(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for

(a) " all other things variable "

(b) "other things increasing"

(c) "other things being equal"

(d) "all other things decreasing"

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?

(a) Dev Anand

(b) Rekha

(c) Dilip Kumar

(d) Shabana Azmi

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with

(a) Interest Rate.

(b) Bank Rate.

(c) Wage Rate.

(d) Exchange Rate.

35. India's biggest enterprise today is

(a) the Indian Railways

(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.

(c) the India Power Sector

(d) the India Telecommunication System.

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is

(a) Indian Statistical Institute

(b) Reserve Bank of India.

(c) Central Statistical Organisation.

(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?

(a) The Governor of India

(b) The Planning Commission

(c) The State Bank of India

(d) The Reserve Bank of India

38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.

(a) Fiscal deficit

(b) Budget deficit

(c) Revenue deficit

(d) Current deficit

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its

(a) production

(b) production and sale.

(c) Production and transportation.

(d) Production, transportation and sale.

40. In the US, the President is elected by

(a) The Senate

(b) Universal Adult Franchise.

(c) The House of Representatives.

(d) The Congress.

41. Fascism believes in

(a) Peaceful change

(b) Force

(c) Tolerance

(d) Basic Rights for the individual

42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?

(a) Supervision

(b) Management

(c) Marketing

(d) Risk bearing

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education 'etc.' in economics, are regarded as

(a) social-overhead capital.

(b) human capital.

(c) tangible physical capital.

(d) working capital.

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?

(a) 2,250 km

(b) 3,500 km

(c) 5,000 km

(d) 1,000 km

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in

(a) Sikkim.

(b) Arunachal Pradesh.

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Jammu and Kashmir.

46. M. Damodaran is the

(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.

(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.

(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.

(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.

47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?

(a) BrahMos

(b) Chetak

(c) Astra

(d) Tejas

48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?

(a) Tony Blair

(b) Jack Straw

(c) Robin Cook

(d) Gordon Brown.

49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in

(a) France.

(b) China.

(c) Germany.

(d) South Africa.

50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) Navin Chawla

(b) N.Gopalswamy

(c) T.S.krishnamoorty

(d) B.B.Tandon

51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is

(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida

(b) Whither Secular India?

(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath

(d) Shining India and BJP.

52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?

(a) Jabunnisa

(b) Fatima Begum

(c) Mehrunnisa

(d) Jahanara

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse

(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909

(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance

(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878

54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by

(a) Lord Lytton.

(b) Lord Ripon.

(c) Lord Dufferin.

(d) Lord Curzon.

55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was

(a) worship of forces of nature.

(b) organized city life.

(c) pastoral farming.

(d) caste society.

56. Name the capital of Pallavas.

(a) Kanchi.

(b) Vattapi.

(c) Trichnapalli.

(d) Mahabalipuram.

57. The Home Rule League was started by

(a) M.K.Gandhi

(b) B.G.Tilak

(c) Ranade

(d) K.T.Telang

58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because

(a) it sought to curb civil liberties.

(b) it proposed to partition India.

(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.

(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.

59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during

(a) Cyclones

(b) Anti-cyclones

(c) Lunar-eclipse

(d) Solar eclipse.

60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with

(a) The Montagu Declaration

(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.

(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms

(d) The Rowlatt Act.

61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by

(a) counting the number of branches.

(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.

(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.

(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.

62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are

(a) Viruses

(b) Bacteria

(c) Algae

(d) Fungi

63. What is an endoscope?

(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal

(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats

(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders

(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.

64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as

(a) Diabetes mellitus

(b) Diabetes insipidus

(c) Diabetes imperfectus

(d) Diabetes sugarensis

65. The President of India is elected by

(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.

(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.

(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.

(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.

66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is

(a) of no use to plants.

(b) injurious of plants.

(c) directly utilized by plants.

(d) utilized through micro-organisms.

67. Diamond and Graphite are

(a) allotropes

(b) isomorphous

(c) isomers

(d) isobars

68. Kayak is kind of

(a) tribal tool.

(b) boat.

(c) ship.

(d) weapon.

69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?

(a) Carbohydrates

(b) fats

(c) Proteins

(d) Vitamins.

70. Rotation of crops means

(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.

(b) some crops are growing again and again.

(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.

(d) None of these.

71. Suez Canal connects

(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.

(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.

(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.

(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.

72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?

(a) Kandla

(b) Kochi

(c) Mumbai

(d) Vishkhapatnam.

73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to

(a) method of potato cultivation.

(b) process of deforestation.

(c) mixed framing.

(d) shifting cultivation.

74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is

(a) excessive fuel wood collection.

(b) excessive soil erosion.

(c) floods.

(d) construction of roads.

75. Recharging of water table depends on

(a) amount of rainfall.

(b) relief of the area.

(c) vegetation of the area.

(d) amount of percolation.

ANSWER KEYS

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4.(c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)

11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20 (a)

21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b)

31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)

41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)

51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)

61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)

71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (a)



5 SSC SO Previous Papers @ Rs. 250

34 Comments

  1. Thanx for giving

    Reply
  2. let me draw your kind attention about the answers given .
    Can u tell me where is nathula pass is located ? It is in sikkim but in answers hint it is given himachal pradesh!!!

    next example place of next football world cup will be held ?The correct answer is South Africa but in answer clue it is given CHINA!!!!!

    so i have much doubt in the answer clues.

    Reply
  3. i have applied for commercial audit exam(2009) which is held on 14.06.09 so please request you to send me last five years solved question papers both papers part(i)-Descriptive type,part(ii)-conventional type(commerce) as they help me to pass out please send me on urgent basis.

    Reply
  4. Pls send me solved commercial paper

    Reply
  5. 1)I have applied for SSC Section officer(commercial audit)2009, pls send me last five years with solved question papers both paper-1(objective type) & paper-2(conventional type).
    (2)Can i get notes for paper 2 ,descriptive paper. THANKS

    Reply
  6. i am selected steno through ssc matric 2006.iam prepairing ssc(SO)i need your help.

    Reply
  7. send me the previous question paper of ssc commercial audit.

    Reply
  8. sir
    send me 2 paper of commercial audit

    Reply
  9. I have applied for SSC Section officer(commercial audit)2009, pls send me last five years with solved question papers both paper-1(objective type) & paper-2(conventional type).

    Reply
  10. hi
    i would like to get previous years solved question papers of ssc section officer(commercial audit) both part 1 & part 2 from you so kindly reply immediatly

    Reply
    • i too applyed for the exam. u can give some suggestion me.

      Reply
  11. Can you give the previous year Questionpaper ( part - I & II) to my mail id

    thank you

    Kirti

    Reply
  12. 1)I have applied for SSC Section officer(commercial audit)2009, pls send me last five years with solved question papers both paper-1(objective type) & paper-2(conventional type).
    2)Can i get notes for paper 2 ,descriptive paper.
    THANKS for earliest reply

    Reply
  13. Dear Sir,

    Please send me the previous paper of Section Officer (commercial)audit, both objective and conventional type.

    Thankyou

    Roshan

    Reply
  14. Respected Sir/Mam,

    I m apply to the post of section officer (commercial Audit exam 2009. I search various sides for the Question papers but did't get till. so pls. send me these question papers both paper-1(objective type) & paper-2(conventional type).

    thank You,
    Surekha Patil.

    Reply
  15. (1)I have applied for SSC Section officer(commercial audit)2009, pls send me last five years with solved question papers both paper-1(objective type) & paper-2(conventional type).
    (2)Can i get notes for paper 2 ,descriptive paper. THANKS

    Reply
  16. pls forward me previous years question paper of ssc section officer (commercial audit)examination.

    Reply
  17. sir,
    plz send me previous send me previous years papers of
    descriptive section of SO(commercial audit) exam 2009

    Reply
  18. sir,
    plz send me previous year ques paper of section officer(commercial audit)solved paper,specialy part 2
    thank you

    Reply
    • sir,
      i have applied for SSC section officer(commercial audit)2009.pls send me previous year solved question paper of part 2 i.e conventional paper(descriptive).
      Thank you

      Reply
  19. sir
    i would like to get previous years solved question papers of ssc section officer(commercial audit) both part 1 & part 2 from you so kindly reply immediatly
    thanking you sir
    yours faithfully
    suja

    Reply
  20. please send me section officer commercial Audit exam paper both part I & II for preparation for study.

    Thanking you

    Reply
  21. hello
    i have applied for ssc commercial audit 2009.
    please tell me which type of questions come in descriptive test in stage 1.

    Reply
  22. My self Rajni Barapatre,I am apply to the post of section officer (SO) commercial audit ex 2009. please send the question paper section officer commercial audit. send to the question paper both of the part(Part I & Part II) of the examination. so please send the q paper.
    thank you
    Rajni Barapatre

    Reply
    • hai dear friend,
      i'm suja ,i too also applied for the ssc exam 2009.if you get any previous question paper kindly forward me to (sujasodar678@gmail)
      yours faithfully
      suja

      Reply
  23. i have applied for SSC Section officer(commercial audit), pls send me last three year papers both part 1 & 2.
    can i get notes for paper 2 ,descriptive paper.

    Reply
  24. Good evening Sir,
    i have applied for ssc commercial officer audit exam.
    it is on 14 june
    please send me previous years solved papers for both the papers,..
    thank you

    Reply
  25. i have applied for SSC Section officer(commercial audit),2009 pls send me last three year papers both part 1 & 2.
    can i get notes for paper 2 ,descriptive paper.

    Reply
    • i am slected through ssc (matric) 2006 as steno in Postal department. Now i am prepairing for ssc(SO). so i need your friend ship

      Reply
  26. I am apply to the post of section officer (SO) commercial audit ex 2009. please send the question paper both of the part(Part I & Part II) of the section officer commercial audit examination.
    pls forward me previous years papers of SSC Section Officer (Commercial Audit) Solved Previous Question Paper.
    Thank you sir,
    Meenakshi.

    Reply
  27. i have applied for SSC Section officer(commercial audit), pls send me last three year papers both part 1 & 2.
    can i get notes for paper 2 ,descriptive paper.

    Reply
  28. i have an apply ssc section co audit exam 2009 plz send the question paper both part 1& 2

    Reply
  29. hello sir

    pls forward me previous years papers of SSC Section Officer (Commercial Audit) Solved Previous Question Paper”

    Reply
    • Sorry dear
      I have obly I part in this paper and send to you.
      Neeraj

      SSC SECTION OFFICER (COMMERCIAL AUDIT)
      SOLVED PAPER
      PART I : GENERAL AWARENESS
      1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
      (a) equality before law.
      (b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
      (c) abolition of titles.
      (d) abolition of untouchability.
      2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
      (a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
      (b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
      (c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
      (d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
      3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
      (a) Three (b) Five
      (c) Six (d) Four
      4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
      (a) aristocracy (b) absolute monarchy
      (c) constitutional monarchy (d) polity.
      5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
      (a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
      (b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
      (c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
      (d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
      6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
      (a) President
      (b) Prime Minister.
      (c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
      (d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
      7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
      (a) Plutarch (b) Herodotus
      (c) Justin (d) Pliny
      8. The Vedas are known as
      (a) Smriti. (b) Sruti.
      (c) Jnana. (d) Siksha.
      9. The members of Estimate Committee are
      (a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
      (b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
      (c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
      (d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
      10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
      (a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
      (b) Chief Minister.
      (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
      (d) President.
      11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
      (a) Scarce currency (b) Soft currency.
      (c) Gold currency (d) Hot currency.
      12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
      (a) GDP (b) Disposable income
      (c) NNP (d) Per capita income
      13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
      (a) the agriculture sector. (b) the factory sector.
      (c) the service sector. (d) All these sectors.
      14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
      (a) Territorial trade. (b) Internal trade.
      (c) International trade. (d) Free trade.
      15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
      (a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
      (b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
      (c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
      (d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
      16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
      (a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
      (b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
      (c) Government loans are floated.
      (d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
      17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
      (a) Luxury goods. (b) Expensive goods.
      (c) Capital goods. (d) Economic goods.
      18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
      (a) E.H.Chamberlin (b) P.A.Samuelson
      (c) J.Robinson (d) A.Marshall
      19. Smoke is formed due to
      (a) solid dispersed in gas (b) solid dispersed in liquid.
      (c) gas dispersed in solid (d) gas dispersed in gas.
      20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
      (a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Silver bromide
      (c) Potassium nitrate (d) Sodium chloride.
      21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
      (a) methane and ethane (b) methane and butane.
      (c) propane and butane (d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
      22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
      (a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation
      (c) Hydrogenation (d) Ozonoloysis
      23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
      (a) Blue (b) Green
      (c) Orange (d) Red
      24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
      (a) better cleaning action. (b) proper pigmental composition.
      (c) high glorious nature. (d) very low cost.
      25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
      (a) INSAT-A (b) Aryabhata
      (c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini
      26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
      (a) Amplitude Movement (b) Anywhere Movement
      (c) Amplitude Matching (d) Amplitude Modulation.
      27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
      (a) Purandar Das (b) Shyamal Bhatt
      (c) Narsi Mehta (d) Sant Gyaneshwar
      28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
      (a) Dengu fever (b) Filariasis
      (c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria
      29. What is the principal one of aluminium?
      (a) Dolomite (b) Copper
      (c) Lignite (d) Bauxite
      30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
      (a) The US (b) Norway
      (c) India (d) The UK
      31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
      (a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council
      (c) The Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry
      32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
      (a) " all other things variable " (b) "other things increasing"
      (c) "other things being equal" (d) "all other things decreasing"
      33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
      (a) Dev Anand (b) Rekha
      (c) Dilip Kumar (d) Shabana Azmi
      34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
      (a) Interest Rate. (b) Bank Rate.
      (c) Wage Rate. (d) Exchange Rate.
      35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
      (a) the Indian Railways (b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
      (c) the India Power Sector (d) the India Telecommunication System.
      36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
      (a) Indian Statistical Institute
      (b) Reserve Bank of India.
      (c) Central Statistical Organisation.
      (d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
      37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
      (a) The Governor of India (b) The Planning Commission
      (c) The State Bank of India (d) The Reserve Bank of India
      38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
      (a) Fiscal deficit (b) Budget deficit
      (c) Revenue deficit (d) Current deficit
      39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
      (a) production
      (b) production and sale.
      (c) Production and transportation.
      (d) Production, transportation and sale.
      40. In the US, the President is elected by
      (a) The Senate
      (b) Universal Adult Franchise.
      (c) The House of Representatives.
      (d) The Congress.
      41. Fascism believes in
      (a) Peaceful change (b) Force
      (c) Tolerance (d) Basic Rights for the individual
      42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
      (a) Supervision (b) Management
      (c) Marketing (d) Risk bearing
      43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
      (a) social-overhead capital. (b) human capital.
      (c) tangible physical capital. (d) working capital.
      44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
      (a) 2,250 km (b) 3,500 km
      (c) 5,000 km (d) 1,000 km
      45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
      (a) Sikkim. (b) Arunachal Pradesh.
      (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir.
      46. M. Damodaran is the
      (a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
      (b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
      (c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
      (d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
      47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
      (a) BrahMos (b) Chetak
      (c) Astra (d) Tejas
      48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
      (a) Tony Blair (b) Jack Straw
      (c) Robin Cook (d) Gordon Brown.
      49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
      (a) France. (b) China.
      (c) Germany. (d) South Africa.
      50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
      (a) Navin Chawla (b) N.Gopalswamy
      (c) T.S.krishnamoorty (d) B.B.Tandon
      51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
      (a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
      (b) Whither Secular India?
      (c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
      (d) Shining India and BJP.
      52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
      (a) Jabunnisa (b) Fatima Begum
      (c) Mehrunnisa (d) Jahanara
      53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
      (a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
      (b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
      (c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
      (d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
      54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
      (a) Lord Lytton. (b) Lord Ripon.
      (c) Lord Dufferin. (d) Lord Curzon.
      55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
      (a) worship of forces of nature. (b) organized city life.
      (c) pastoral farming. (d) caste society.
      56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
      (a) Kanchi. (b) Vattapi.
      (c) Trichnapalli. (d) Mahabalipuram.
      57. The Home Rule League was started by
      (a) M.K.Gandhi (b) B.G.Tilak
      (c) Ranade (d) K.T.Telang
      58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
      (a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
      (b) it proposed to partition India.
      (c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
      (d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
      59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
      (a) Cyclones (b) Anti-cyclones
      (c) Lunar-eclipse (d) Solar eclipse.
      60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
      (a) The Montagu Decleration (b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
      (c) The Morley-Minto Reforms (d) The Rowlatt Act.
      61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
      (a) counting the number of branches.
      (b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
      (c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
      (d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
      62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
      (a) Viruses (b) Bacteria
      (c) Algae (d) Fungi
      63. What is an endoscope?
      (a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
      (b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
      (c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
      (d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
      64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
      (a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus
      (c) Diabetes imperfectus (d) Diabetes sugarensis
      65. The President of India is elected by
      (a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
      (b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
      (c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
      (d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
      66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
      (a) of no use to plants. (b) injurious of plants.
      (c) directly utilized by plants. (d) utilized through micro-organisms.
      67. Diamond and Graphite are
      (a) allotropes (b) isomorphous
      (c) isomers (d) isobars
      68. Kayak is kind of
      (a) tribal tool. (b) boat.
      (c) ship. (d) weapon.
      69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
      (a) Carbohydrates (b) fats
      (c) Proteins (d) Vitamins.
      70. Rotation of crops means
      (a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
      (b) some crops are growing again and again.
      (c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
      (d) None of these.
      71. Suez Canal connects
      (a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
      (b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
      (c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
      (d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
      72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
      (a) Kandla (b) Kochi
      (c) Mumbai (d) Vishkhapatnam.
      73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
      (a) method of potato cultivation. (b) process of deforestation.
      (c) mixed framing. (d) shifting cultivation.
      74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
      (a) excessive fuel wood collection.
      (b) excessive soil erosion.
      (c) floods.
      (d) construction of roads.
      75. Recharging of water table depends on
      (a) amount of rainfall. (b) relief of the area.
      (c) vegetation of the area. (d) amount of percolation.
      Part II : AIRTHMETIC
      76. A trader sells his goods at a discount of 20 per cent. He still makes a profit of 25 per cent. If he sells the goods at the marked price only, his profit will be
      (a) 56.25 per cent (b) 25.56 per cent
      (c) 50.25 per cent (d) 54.25 per cent
      77. The total surface area of a metallic hemisphere is 1848 cm2 . The hemisphere is melted to form a solid right circular cone. If the radius of the base of the cone is the same as the radius of the hemisphere, its height is
      (a) 21 cm. (b) 26 cm.
      (c) 28 cm. (d) 30 cm.
      78. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm. The area of the portion between the triangle and the circle is
      (a) 11 cm2 . (b) 10.95 cm2 .
      (c) 10 cm2 . (d) 10.50 cm2 .
      79. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of their respective volumes is
      (a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:1:3
      (c) 1:3:2 (d) 3:1:2
      80. The difference between a discount of 40 per cent on Rs. 500 and two successive discounts of 36 per cent and 4 per cent on the same amount is
      (a) zero (b) Rs. 1.93
      (c) Rs. 2.00 (d) Rs. 7.20
      81. If a discount of 20 per cent on the marked price of a shirt saves a man Rs. 150, how much did he pay for the shirt?
      (a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 650
      (c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 620
      82. In a cricket match the total number of runs scored by Sachin, Vinod and Saurav is 285. The ratio of the number of runs scored by Sachin and Saurav is 3:2 and that of the runs scored by Sourav and Vinod is also 3:2. The number of runs scored by Sachin in that match is
      (a) 135 (b) 90
      (c) 60 (d) 140
      83. If A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5, then A:B:C is
      (a) 2:3:5 (b) 5:4:6
      (c) 6:4:5 (d) 8:12:15
      84. If two times of A is equal to three times of B and also equal to four times of C, then A:B:C is
      (a) 2:3:4 (b) 3:4:2
      (c) 4:6:3 (d) 6:4:3
      85. In a bag, there are three types of coins- rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise in the ratio 3:8:20. Their total value is Rs. 372. The total number of coins is
      (a) 1200 (b) 961
      (c) 744 (d) 612
      86. 5 years ago, the average age of A,B,C and D was 45 years. With E joining them now, the average of all the five is 49 years. How old is E?
      (a) 25 years (b) 40 years
      (c) 45 years (d) 64 years.
      87. 200 liters of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 17:3. After the addition of some more milk to it, the ratio of milk of water in the resulting mixture becomes 7:1. The quantity of milk added it was
      (a) 20 liters. (b) 40 liters.
      (c) 60 liters. (d) 80 liters.
      88. 3333(333)(333)(334)3333333334++−ΧΧΧis equal to
      (a) 12 (b) 11
      (c) 10 (d) 15
      89. The least number, which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 16,20 and 24, is
      (a) 1600 (b) 3600
      (c) 6400 (d) 14400
      90. The L.C.M. of the two numbers is 45 times their H.C.F. If one of the numbers is 125 and the sum of H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 1150, the other number is
      (a) 215 (b) 220
      (c) 225 (d) 235
      91. The least one of 4 2 3,25, 8 and 3 2 is
      (a) 23 (b) 4 25
      (c) 8 (d) 32 121212... + + +
      92. is equal to
      (a) 3 (b) 4
      (c) 6 (d) 2
      93. If (a-b) is 6 more than (c+d) and (a+b) 3 is less than (c-d), then (a-c) is
      (a) 0.5 (b) 1
      (c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
      94. In a test, a student got 30 per cent marks and failed. In the same test, another student got 40 per cent marks and secured 25 marks more than the essential minimum pass mark. The maximum marks for the test were
      (a) 400 (b) 480
      (c) 500 (d) 580
      95. 200 liters of a mixture contains 15 per cent water and the rest is milk. The amount of milk that must be added so that the resulting mixture contains 87.5 per cent milk is
      SSC Section Officer (Commercial Audit) Exam Page 11 of 25
      (a) 30 liters. (b) 35 liters.
      (c) 40 liters. (d) 45 liters.
      96. A man sold two chairs at Rs. 1,200 each. On one hand he gained 20 per cent and on other he lost 20 per cent. His gain or loss in the whole transaction is
      (a) 1 per cent loss. (b) 2 per cent loss.
      (c) 4 per cent loss. (d) 1 per cent gain.
      97. By what per cent must the cost price be raised in fixing the sale price in order that there may be a profit of 20 per cent after allowing a commission of 10 per cent?
      (a) 25 (b) 13313
      (c) 3313(d) 30
      98. If the price of petrol be raised by 20 per cent, then the percentage by which a car owner must reduce his consumption so as not to increase his expenditure on petrol is
      (a) 16 13 (b) 162 3
      (c) 1523(d) 151 3
      99. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50 per cent, then the area will be increased by
      (a) 50 per cent (b) 75 per cent
      (c) 100 per cent (d) 125 per cent
      100. A,B,C enter into a partnership. A contributes Rs. 3,20,000 for 4 months, B contributes Rs. 5,10,000 for 3 months and C contributes Rs. 2,70,000 for 5 months. If the total profit be Rs. 1,24,800, then A’s share of profit is
      (a) Rs. 38,400 (b) Rs. 45,900
      (c) Rs. 40,500 (d) Rs. 41,500
      101. The value of (12+22+32…..+202)-(1+2+3+….+20) is
      (a) 5320 (b) 4200
      (c) 3150 (d) 2660
      102. If A and B together can complete a work in 18 days, A and C together in 12 days, and B and C together in 9 days, then B alone can do the work in
      (a) 18 days. (b) 24 days.
      (c) 30 days. (d) 40 days.
      103. A tank can be filled with water by two pipes A and B together in 36 minutes. If the pipe B was stopped after 30 minutes, the tank is filled in 40 minutes. The pipe B alone can fill the tank in
      (a) 45 minutes. (b) 60 minutes.
      (c) 75 minutes. (d) 90 minutes.
      104. From a point in the interior of an equilateral triangle, the lengths of the perpendiculars to the three sides are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively. The area of the triangle is
      (a) 48 cm2 . (b) 163cm2 .
      (c) 1923 cm2 . (d) 192 cm2 .
      105. If the altitude of a triangle is increased by 10 per cent while its area remains same, its corresponding base will have to be decreased by
      (a) 10 per cent (b) 9 per cent
      (c) 1911 per cent (d) 1119per cent
      106. The simple interest on a sum of money is 1 16 of the principal and the number of years is equal to the rate per cent per annum. The rate per annum is
      (a) 112per cent (b) 2 1 2 per cent
      (c) 312per cent (d) 4 1 2 per cent
      107. Running at 5 4 of his usual speed, an athlete improves his timing by 5 minutes. The time he usually take to run the same distance is
      (a) 30 minutes. (b) 28 minutes.
      (c) 25 minutes. (d) 23 minutes.
      108. In a race of 1000 m, A can beat B by 100 m, In a race of 400 m, B beats C by 40m. In a race of 500 m, A will beat C by
      (a) 95 m. (b) 50 m.
      (c) 45 m. (d) 60 m.
      109. A sum of Rs. 6,000 is deposited for 3 years at 5 per cent per annum compound interest (compounded annually). The difference of interest for 3 and 2 years will be
      (a) Rs. 75.00 (b) Rs. 30.75
      (c) Rs. 330.75 (d) Rs. 375.00
      110. The difference between the compound and the simple interests on a sum for 2 years at 10 per cent per annum, when the interest is compounded annually, is Rs.28. If the interest were compounded half yearly, the difference in the two interests will be
      (a) Rs. 44 (b) Rs. 28.35
      (c) Rs. 43.41 (d) Rs. 43.29
      111. A dealer sold 34of his articles at a gain of 20 per cent and the remaining at cost price. The gain percent earned by him in the whole transaction is
      (a) 13 (b) 14
      (c) 15 (d) 16
      112. Mohan brought 25 books for Rs. 2,000 and sold them at a profit equal to the selling price of 5 books. The selling price of 1 book is
      (a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 120
      (c) Rs. 150 (d) Rs. 200
      113. 7 kg of tea costing Rs. 280 per kg is mixed with 9 kg of tea costing Rs. 240 per kg. The average price of the mixed tea is
      (a) Rs. 225.80 (b) Rs. 257.50
      (c) Rs. 267.20 (d) Rs. 267.50
      114. Of the three numbers, the second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of these numbers is 44, the largest number is
      (a) 24 (b) 36
      (c) 72 (d) 108
      115. The average of 30 numbers is 15. The average of the first 18 numbers is 10 and that of next 11 numbers is 20. The last number is
      (a) 56 (b) 52
      (c) 60 (d) 50
      116. Two-third of a consignment was sold at a profit of 5 per cent and the remainder of loss of 2 per cent. If the total profit was Rs. 400, then the value of the consignment was
      (a) Rs. 15,000 (b) Rs. 15,500
      (c) Rs. 16,000 (d) Rs. 16,500
      Directions. Q. 117-120 : These questions are based on the following bar graph and the question
      FINANCES IF XYX RAILWAYS640075008500940053005100580069008000880002000400060008000100002001-022002-032003-042004-052005-06 Gross Traffic ReceiptsTotal Expenditure
      117. In which year was the profit , as a percent of gross traffic receipts, the highest?
      (a) 2005-06 (b) 2004-05
      (c) 2003-04 (d) 2002-03
      118. In order to make profit 10 percent what should have been the gross traffic receipts (in Rs. Crores) in 2002-03, total expenditure remaining the same?
      (a) 6186 (b) 5876
      (c) 6444 (d) 7667
      119. What was the percentage increase in the gross traffic receipt in 2003-04 as compared to 2001-02?
      (a) 33.9 (b) 41.5
      (c) 20.7 (d) 17
      120. If profit=gross traffic – total expenditure, then in 2004-05 what percentage of gross traffic receipts is the profit made?
      (a) 5.9 (b) 6.4
      (c) 7.2 (d) 8.0
      121. The least multiple of 7, which leaves the remainder 4, when divided by any of 6, 9, 15 and 18, is
      (a) 76 (b) 94
      (c) 184 (d) 364
      122. If a = 5151+− and b= 5151−+, the value of 2222aabbaabb⎛⎞++⎜⎟−+⎝⎠ is
      (a) 34 (b) 43
      (c) 35 (d) 53
      123. One’s digit of (2137)754 is
      (a) 1 (b) 3
      (c) 7 (d) 9
      124. 1111...1223341011++++ΧΧΧΧ is equal to
      (a) 911 (b) 1011
      (c) 1211 (d) 109 110
      125. The sum of two 2-digit numbers is 132. If their H.C.F. is 11, the numbers are
      (a) 55, 77 (b) 44, 88
      (c) 33, 99 (d) 22,110
      PART III : ENGLISH
      Directions. Q. 126-130 : In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in Answer-sheet.
      126. He is accused of on sitting on the fence.
      (a) observing the scene (b) resting on fence
      (c) hesitating which side to take (d) sitting back and enjoying the fun
      127. You have to read between the lines to understand most of the symbolic writing.
      (a) read again and again (b) understand the hidden meaning
      (c) know the symbols (d) look for many meanings
      128. The ruling party has been warned not to play to the gallery.
      (a) to give importance to the common man
      (b) to try to be clever
      (c) to seek to win approval
      (d) to side-track the issue
      129. In the securities scam, the national credibility was at stake.
      (a) on trial (b) under pressure
      (c) in danger (d) challenged
      130. There is no love lost between any two neighboring countries in the world.
      (a) stop loving (b) not on good terms
      (c) in danger (d) challenged
      Directions. Q. 131-135: In these questions, group of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly –spelt. Find the wrongly-spelt word and mark in the Answer-Sheet.
      131.
      (a) Sergent (b) Silhousette
      (c) Session (d) Somnambulist
      132.
      (a) Façade (b) Inept
      (c) Quotation (d) Pursuasive
      133.
      (a) Demeanour (b) Deodorise
      (c) Demonstretor (d) Demoralise
      134.
      (a) Courageous (b) Outrangeous
      (c) Languoreous (d) Spacious
      135.
      (a) Lapped (b) Murmurred
      (c) Deterred (d) Worshipped
      Directions. Q. 136-140: In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest pf the passage is spilt into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in Answer-sheet.
      136.
      1. We do not know whether the machines are the masters or we are.
      P: They must be given rather ‘fed’ with coal and given petrol to drink from time to time
      Q: Already man spends most of his time looking after and waiting upon them.
      R: Yet we have grown so dependent on them that they have almost becomes the masters now.
      S. It is very true that they were made for the sole purpose of being man’s servants.
      6. And if they don’t get their meals when they expect them, they will just refuse to work.
      (a) RSQP (b) RSPQ
      (c) SPQR (d) SRQP
      137.
      1. The king of the oilfield is the driller.
      P: During the process of drilling, gas and oil may be met.
      Q: He is very skilled man.
      R: If this rushes out and catches fire it is dangerous.
      S: Sometimes he sends his drill more than a mile.
      6. This danger is well-known and steps are taken to prevent it.
      (a) PQRS (b) PRQS
      (c) QPRS (d) RSQP
      138.
      1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to retrieve.
      P: All valuables were smashed or stolen.
      Q: The curtains were burned; books were ripped to shreds.
      R: Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere.
      S: The house had been completely ransacked.
      6. Mrs. M stood in the center of her bedroom looking at a ruined copy of the Holy book, forcing back her tears.
      (a) PQRS (b) PRQS
      (c) SPRQ (d) RSQP
      139.
      1. The student came late to the school.
      P: He went home weeping.
      Q: The watchman didn’t allow him inside the school.
      R: The boy was waiting outside for some time.
      S: He then decide to go home.
      6. It was bad day for him.
      (a) QSPR (b) QSRP
      (c) QRSP (d) QPSR
      140.
      1. Freedom is first of all a personal matter.
      P: A man who will not submit to the discipline of his chosen occupation is not free to be a great surgeon, or engineer, or golfer, or executive.
      Q: Life imposes a drastic discipline on all living things, including human beings.
      R: We are free to eat poison or jump off a tall building, but not to escape the consequences.
      S: We are bound by the laws of cause and effect.
      6. Nature, moreover, binds us by arbitrary limits of mind and body; we are not free to do, by whatever effort, what is beyond our capacity.
      (a) QRSP (b) RSPQ
      (c) PQRS (d) SRQP
      Directions. Q.141-150: In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
      1. 141. A short poem or speech addressed to the spectators after the conclusion of a drama
      (a) Prologue (b) Dialogue
      (c) Epilogue (d) Monologue
      142. One who loves books
      (a) Scholar (b) Bibliographer
      (c) Teacher (d) Bibliophile
      143. Belief that war and violence are unjustified
      (a) Neutralization (b) Pessimism
      (c) Naturalization (d) Pacifism
      144. A group of girls
      (a) Bevy (b) covey
      (c) Troupe (d) Coterie
      145. Causing or ending in death
      (a) Fatal (b) Deadly
      (c) Serious (d) Dangerous
      146. Military waking signal sounded in the morning
      (a) Reveille (b) Lullaby
      (c) Anthem (d) Soprano
      147. Study of insects
      (a) Ecology (b) Embryology
      (c) Entomology (d) Biology
      148. A person in his seventies
      (a) Sexagenarian (b) Septuagenarian
      (c) Centurion (d) Patriarch
      149. One who has obstinate and narrow religious views
      (a) Theosophist (b) Bigot
      (c) Philosopher (d) Theologian
      150. The sound of a funeral bell
      (a) Knell (b) Spell
      (c) Dong (d) Ding-dong
      Directions. Q. 151-155: In these questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
      151. Tell him to get out of our house.
      (a) He is told to get out of our house.
      (b) Let him be told to get out of our house.
      (c) He might be told to get out of our house.
      (d) He should be told that he may get out of our house.
      152. Those who worked hard seldom obtained good marks.
      (a) Good marks were seldom being obtained by those who worked hard.
      (b) Good marks are seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
      (c) Seldom had good marks been obtained by those who worked hard.
      (d) Good marks were seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
      153. Has the price-rise affected all the people?
      (a) Have all the people been affected by the price-rise?
      (b) Are all the people being affected by the price-rise?
      (c) Had all the people being affected by the price-rise?
      (d) Are all the people affected by the price-rise?
      154. They pick the flowers fresh every morning.
      (a) The fresh flowers are picked every morning by them.
      (b) The flowers are fresh and picked every morning by them.
      (c) The flowers are picked fresh every morning by them.
      (d) The picked flowers are fresh every morning by them.
      155. Everyone looked up to him.
      (a) He was looked up to by everyone.
      (b) He was looked up by everyone.
      (c) He is looked up by everyone.
      (d) He looks up by everyone.
      Directions. Q. 156-165: In these questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D).
      156. He can’t read this, nor can I.
      (a) no, I never can (b) no, I can’t
      (c) no, I don’t (d) No improvement
      157. I brought four dozen of mangoes.
      (a) dozens of mango (b) dozens of mangoes
      (c) dozens mangoes (d) No improvement
      158. The master was good at using pleasant names for unpleasant things in order to hoodwink the laboureres.
      (a) euphemisms (b) euphoria
      (c) pleasantries (d) No improvement
      159. They had to put off until later the open-air performance because of heavy rain.
      (a) postpone (b) delay
      (c) adjourn (d) No improvement.
      160. Dozens of phrases can be offered to describe style but perhaps the best one is : "Style-it is the man."
      (a) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
      (b) but perhaps the best one is : " Style is the man."
      (c) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
      (d) No improvement.
      161. They have bought a new car, isn’t it?
      (a) haven’t they? (b) don’t they?
      (c) have they? (d) No improvement.
      162. Only a few persons can stand on entreaties.
      (a) against (b) with
      (c) in (d) No improvement.
      163. I had my ears bored so I could wear my diamond ear-rings
      (a) holed (b) pricked
      (c) pierced (d) No improvement.
      164. It is interesting to correspond the history of the 19th century with its literature.
      (a) corroborate (b) correlate
      (c) command (d) No improvement.
      165. Didn’t Mr. Sharma come to the office yet?
      (a) Hadn’t (b) Hasn’t
      (c) Isn’t (d) No improvement.
      Directions. Q. 166-175: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
      In most enterprises around the world, it is the Information Technology infrastructure that is undergoing the most rapid upgradation. Perhaps this is a direct result of the rate of …..166….. in the Information Technology industry, ……167….. with new …….168…… and business ……169…… invading our consciousness everyday. In this context, it is …..170…. of this new technology that looms……171….. as an issue …..172…. chief information officers of end-user organizations. Given the ….173…. of
      magnitude….174….. the investments required and associated …..175….. in human terms in order to effect change of this magnitude, this concern is hardly surprising.
      166.
      (a) rejection (b) growth
      (c) obsolescence (d) magnificence
      167.
      (a) where (b) hence
      (c) what (d) since
      168.
      (a) armies (b) agencies
      (c) enemies (d) technologies
      169.
      (a) relations (b) prospects
      (c) applications (d) agreements
      170.
      (a) absorption (b) development
      (c) delineation (d) filtration
      171.
      (a) large (b) wide
      (c) across (d) close
      172.
      (a) eluding (b) facing
      (c) confounding (d) comprising
      173.
      (a) order (b) priority
      (c) quality (d) gravity
      174.
      (a) in (b) on
      (c) for (d) of
      175.
      (a) choices (b) costs
      (c) feelings (d) possibilities
      Directions. Q.176-180. In these questions you have one brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-sheet.
      Passage
      Every society must develop in its people a social responsibility. This is something that we, in India, have been falling short of.
      We are very individualistic, and don’t relate ourselves to our society as such. Very seldom do we actually go out and do something, which is beneficial to the society and which does not have a side-benefit for ourselves, as individuals. And this is another thing that must be built into the education system.
      Our young boys and girls coming out must have a feeling for our society. There is a special responsibility that you have, that we all have in building up the spirit.. We have to see that what we learn is not used only; for our own personal benefits, that every task we do is such that it benefits the weak and the poor, as Gandhiji has said.
      India, today, is striving out into the modern world. We are looking ahead to new technology to high technology, new methods, new types of employment, and an new dynamism in our economic growth.
      But while we look ahead, we must not forget the millions who are still Below the Poverty Line. When we look at technology, when we look at science, when we look at development, our attention must not be diverted from what is still a major block in India -the poor and deprived groups. And everything we do must be targetted in a manner that the benefit will flow to the weak, the deprived and the depressed.
      176. The author says that India
      (a) wants to acquire new technology.
      (b) does not want new technology.
      (c) already has sufficient new technology.
      (d) can export technology to other countries.
      177. The author suggests that
      (a) the poor and the weak must benefit from new technology.
      (b) the poor and week produce new technology.
      (c) the new technology must help the rich.
      (d) the new technology is useless to the poor and weak.
      178. What value does the author want to build into the educational system?
      (a) Individual must work for themselves.
      (b) Individual must work for the benefit of the society without expecting any return or personal benefits.
      (c) Society must work for the benefit of the individuals.
      (d) Side-benefit is a must for any special work.
      179. According to the author, the Indian people
      (a) are socially very responsible.
      (b) lack social responsibility.
      (c) have several responsibilities.
      (d) are highly responsible.
      180. Indians do not do anything beneficial to society unless
      (a) there is a benefit for themselves.
      (b) it involves personal sacrifices.
      (c) other individuals are benefited.
      (d) the whole society benefits by it.
      Directions. Q.181-190. In these questions some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to appropriate letter (A), (B) and (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to (D) in the Answer-Sheet.
      1. 181. I meant nothing (a) /less than (b) /to compel you to come. (c)/ No error (d).
      2. 182. Females (a)/ are not appointed (b)/ in our college. (c)/ No error (d).
      3. 183. He has read four plays (a)/ written by Shakespeare (b)/ by the end of his vacation. (c)/ No error (d).
      4. 184. The officer (a)/is angry on the clerk (b)/for not attending to the work. (c)/ No error (d).
      5. 185. Banks were developed to keep people’s money safe (a)/ and to make it available (b) / when they need it. (c)/ No error (d).
      6. 186. Based on the newspaper reports, (a)/ we can conclude that (b)/ many accidents caused by reckless driving. (c)/ No error (d).
      7. 187. He walked (a)/ till the (b)/end of the street. (c)/ No error (d).
      8. 188. The strain of all (a)/ the difficulties and vexation and anxieties (b)/ are more than he could bear. (c)/ No error (d).
      9. 189. In the background they could hear John laughing and joking loudly, (a)/ John was the life and soul of any party. (b)/ and he was cracking a joke every few minutes. (c)/ No error (d).
      10. 190. I was thinking (a)/ if I could do (b)/ anything to help. (c)/ No error (d).
      Directions. Q.191-195. in these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
      191. Impious
      (a) Holy
      (b) Mischievous
      (c) Shrewd
      (d) Irreverent
      192. Freelance
      (a) Self-betrayed
      (b) Self-centred
      (c) Self-employed
      (d) Self-driven
      193. Slither
      (a) Slide (b) Move
      (c) Shake (d) Slip
      194. Apposite
      (a) Contrary
      (b) Bitter
      (c) Appropriate
      (d) Misleading
      195. Scorn
      (a) Ridicule
      (b) Laugh
      (c) Condemn
      (d) Criticise
      Directions. Q.196-200. in these questions, choose the word opposite to the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
      196. Cursory
      (a) Final
      (b) Through
      (c) Impulsive
      (d) Customary
      197. Lackadaisical
      (a) Enthusiastic
      (b) Intelligent
      (c) Classical
      (d) Irresponsible
      198. Sublime
      (a) Inferior
      (b) Deficit
      (c) Ridiculous
      (d) Crooked
      199. Evident
      (a) Definite
      (b) Careless
      (c) Clear
      (d) Obscure
      200. Insolent
      (a) Arrogant
      (b) Humble
      (c) Ashamed
      (d) Ignorant
      ANSWER KEYS
      1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
      11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
      21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
      31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
      41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
      51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
      61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
      71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (a)
      81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)
      91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (d)
      101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c)
      110. (c) 111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (c)
      119. (a) 120. (d) 121. (b) 122. (d) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (a)
      128. (c) 129. (a) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (b)
      137. (a) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (c) 141. (d) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (a)
      146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (a)
      155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (b)
      164. (b) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (a) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (b) 172. (a)
      173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (a) 176. (a) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (b) 181. (d)
      182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (c) 186. (b) 187. (c) 188. (b) 189. (a) 190. (d)
      191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (b)
      200. (b)

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