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SSC Section Officer (Audit) PAPER II - ARITHMETIC: Nov 2008

Exam Name: Section Officer (Audit) Paper II

Conducted By: Staff Selection Commission (SSC)

Conducted On: November 30, 2008

Maximum Marks: 100

Time Allowed: 2 Hours

Negative Marking: Zero (No Negative Marking)

Type of Questions: Conventional Type (Descriptive/Subjective)

This is in continuation of the SSC Section Officer (Audit) Exam’s Paper I. Paper II consisted of Arithmetic of class X level.

PAPER II - ARITHMETIC

1. A man spends 75% of his income, when his income is increased by 20%, he increases his expenditure by 10%. By how much per cent are his savings increased? [4]

2. The marked price of a watch is Rs. 400. After allowing a discount of 25% on the marked price, there was a loss of Rs. 20. Determine the loss per cent. [4]

3. The average of the squares of five consecutive positive integers is 66. Find the average of these five integers. [4]

4. The radii of three concentric circles are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. Find the ratio of the area between the two inner circles to that between the two outer circles. [4]

5. A dealer allows a discount of 12% on the marked price. How much per cent above the cost price, must he mark his goods so as to make a profit of 10%? [4]

6. From a 5 litres of 20% solution of alcohol in water, 2 litres of solution is taken out and 2 litres of water is added to it. Find the strength of alcohol in the new solution. [6]

7. A alone can complete a piece of work of Rs. 300 in 6 days; but by engaging an assistant, the work is completed in 4 days. Find the share to be received by the assistant. [6]

8. The marked price of a watch was Rs. 820. A man bought the same for Rs. 570.72 after getting two successive discounts of which the first was 20%. Find the rate of second discount. [6]

9. A shopkeeper mixes two varieties of tea - one costing Rs. 75 per kg and the other costing Rs. 50 per kg in the ratio 3: 2. If he sells the mixed variety at Rs. 62.40 per kg, find his gain or loss per cent.

10. The average of the age of a husband and wife, five years ago, was 25 years. The average of the present age of husband, wife and a child, born during the time, is 21 years. Determine the present age of the child. [6]

11. A train, 100 m long travelling at 60 km/hr passes another train, twice as fast as this train and travelling in opposite direction, in 10 seconds. Find the length of the second train. [6]

12. If the difference between compound interest, compounded half-yearly, and simple interest on a sum of money at 8% per annum for 1 year is Rs. 30, find the sum. [6]

13. If x: a = y: b = z: c, then show that

[(ax-by)/(a+b) (x-y)] + [(by-cz)/(b+c) (y-z)] + [(cz - ax)/(c+a) (z-x)] = 3

[6]

14. A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 and 10 days respectively. However, they work alternately, one day each, with A beginning the work. In how much time will the work be completed? [8]

15. A and B are partners in a business. If B invested 1/5th of the capital for 10 months and received 1/3rd of the profit after one year, then determine for how many months A invested his capital. [8]

16. Water is flowing at the rate of 5 km/hr through a cylindrical pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. Determine the time in which the level of water in the tank will rise by 7 cm. [8]

17.

The pie-chart, given above, shows various modes of transport used by 2400 officers of an organisation in a city to reach their office. Study the chart and answer the following questions:

(i) How many officers travel to their office by Metro Rail? [2]

(ii) How many more officers travel by two-wheelers than those travelling by cars? [2]

(iii) What should be the corresponding central angle in the n -chart for showing officers travelling by bus? [2]

(iv) How many officers do not take Metro Rail, a bus, a car or a two-wheeler as their mode of transport in reaching their office? [2]

If you missed Paper I you can find it here:

SSC Section Officer (Audit) Paper I: Patt A (English Language)

SSC Section Officer (Audit) Paper I: Part B (General Awareness)

Tags: Arithmetic, Audit, Section Officer, SSC

SSC Section Officer (Audit) Question Paper,Paper IB: Nov 2008

Exam Name: Section Officer (Audit)

Conducted By: Staff Selection Commission (SSC)

Conducted On: November 30, 2008

Maximum Marks: 200

Time Allowed: 2 Hours

Negative Marking: Zero (No Negative Marking)

Type of Questions: Objective (Multiple Choice)

We have split the Paper I of the SSC Audit Exam into two different parts of 100 questions each. This Part covers Part B (English Language) Objective Questions.

You can find the SSC Section Officer Audit Paper I: Part A (English Language) here.

PAPER I: PART-B GENERAL AWARENESS

101. Devaluation of currency leads to

(A) expansion of export trade

(B) contraction of import trade

(C) expansion of import substitution

(D) All of the above

102. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of

(A) Commercial bills

(B) Foreign exchange

(C) Gold

(D) Government bonds

103. Which is not the objective of Public Procurement and . Distribution system followed by Indian Government?

(A) Maintain price stability through creation of buffer stocks

(B) Protect the interests of both consumers and poor farmers

(C) Control the production of food grains

(D) Reduce personal and regional inequality in the distribution

104. Where is the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade located?

(A) New Delhi

(B) Hyderabad

(C) Mumbai

(D) Ahmedabad

105. The Centre for Agricultural Marketing is located at

(A) Jaipur

(B) New Delhi

(C) Nagpur

(D) Hyderabad

106. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by

(A) Total population of the country

(B) Total working population

(C) Area of the country

(D) Volume of capital used

107. The currency of Thailand is

(A) Bhat

(B) Rupiah

(C) Yuan

(D) Yen

108. World Bank helps countries with loans for the purpose of

(A) reconstruction and development

(B) stimulating private investment

(C) tackling foreign exchange crisis

(D) meeting deficits in government budget

109. In Indian agriculture, the period from July to October-November is called

(A) Rabi season

(B) Kharif season

(C) Pre-kharif season

(D) Slack season

110. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of public sector units occur when the government sells

(A) 5% of shares

(B) 10% of shares

(C) 15% of shares

(D) 20% of shares

111. The Narasimham Committee (1991) on financial reforms proposed for establish ment of a

(A) Four tier hierarchy of the Banking structure

(B) Three tier hierarchy of the Banking structure

(C) Two tier hierarchy of the Banking structure

(D) Unified control by the apex institutions

112. The Planning Commission of India was constituted in the year

(A) 1942

(B) 1947

(C) 1950

(D) 1955

113. Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution?

(A) Supreme Court

(B) Parliament

(C) Constitution

(D) President

114. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of

(A) centre/state relations

(B) Legislative problems

(C) Union territories’ problems

(D) Tribal areas

115. The Judges of the High Court hold office

(A) during the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India

(B) till they have attained 62 years of age

(C) till they have attained 65 years of age

(D) as long as they desire

116. The United Nations officially came into existence on

(A) January 1, 1942

(B) October 3, 1944

(C) October 24, 1945

(D) June 26, 1945

117. The English Crown is an example of

(A) Real executive

(B) Quasi-real executive

(C) Nominal executive

(D) Nominated executive

118. The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to

(A) The President

(B) The Supreme Court

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

119. In ends and means relationship, Gandhiji believed

(A) Means become good if they serve the end

(B) Means and ends are watertight compartments

(C) Means determine the end

(D) End is everything, no matter what or how the means are

120. The ‘Speaker’s vote’ in the Lok Sabha is called

(A) casting vote

(B) sound vote

(C) direct vote

(D) indirect vote

121. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘Fundamental Rights’?

(A) Part I

(B) Part II

(C) Part III

(D) Part IV

122. Which is the Greek classic that Gandhi translated into Gujarati?

(A) Plato’s Republic

(B) Dialogues of Plato

(C) Aristotle’s Politics

(D) Aristotle’s Nicomachicm Ethics

123. To be a regional party, the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is

(A) 2%

(B) 3%

(C) 4%

(D) 5%

124. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution?

(A) Eleven

(B) Nine

(C) Twenty

(D) Twelve

125. Indian Penal Code came into operation in

(A) 1858

(B) 1860

(C) 1859

(D) 1862

126. The First Viceroy & Governor-General of British India was

(A) Lord Dalhousie

(B) Sir John Lawrence

(C) Warren Hastings

(D) Lord Canning

127. The split between the ‘Extremists’ and ‘Moderates’ came up in the open at the Surat Congress Session in the year

(A) 1905

(B) 1906

(C) 1907

(D) 1910

128. Bhulabhai Desai’s most memorable achieve ment was his defence of the Indian National Army (I.N.A) personnel at the Red Fort Trial towards the end of

(A) 1943

(B) 1944

(C) 1945

(D) 1946

129. St. Thomas is said to have come to India to propagate Christianity during the reign of the

(A) Cheras

(B) Parthians

(C) Pandyas

(D) Cholas

130. The First Viceroy of the Portuguese in the East was

(A) Albuquerque

(B) Joa de Castro

(C) Francisco de Almedia

(D) Nuno da Cunha

131. When was the All India Women’s Con ference founded?

(A) 1924

(B) 1925

(C) 1926

(D) 1927

132. The Kuka movement started in mid- Nineteenth century in

(A) Western Punjab

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Bengal

(D) MadhyaBharat

133. Who is the author of the autobiography, The Indian Struggle?

(A) Annie Beasant

(B) Subhas Chandra Bose

(C) Chittaranjan Das

(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

134. Mahatma Gandhi’s remark, “A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank” is regarding the proposals of

(A) Simon Commission

(B) Cripps Mission

(C) Cabinet Mission

(D) WavelPlan

135. Under whose leadership was the Congress Socialist Party founded in 1934?

(A) Jawahailal Nehru and Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Acharya Narendra Dev and Jai Prakash Narayan

(C) Subhas Chandra Bose and P. C. Joshi

(D) Saifuddin Kitchlew and Rajendra Prasad

136. The people of the Indus Valley Civilization usually built their houses of

(A) Pucca bricks

(B) Stone

(C) Wood

(D) All of the above

137. Which one of the following pairs of places does the National Highway number 2 join?

(A) Delhi - Amritsar

(B) Delhi - Mumbai

(C) Delhi - Kolkata

(D) Delhi - Ahmedabad

138. Watermelons grow best in

(A) Alluvial soil

(B) Sandy soil

(C) Black soil

(D) Laterite soil

139. In which state is the Maikala range situated?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Bihar

(D) Chhatisgarh

140. The latitude passing through the northern most part of India is

(A) 35° N

(B) 36° N

(C) 37° N

(D) 39° N

141. River erosion is at its greatest where the river’s

(A) depth is more

(B) breadth is more

(C) flow is fast

(D) gradient is more

142. Nallamala hills are located in the state of

(A) Orissa

(B) Meghalaya

(C) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Gujarat

143. Excluding the East European countries and Russia, the country with the largest area under forest, is

(A) USA

(B) Canada

(C) Australia

(D) Brazil

144. In which of the following is the Great Barrier Reef located?

(A) Coral Sea

(B) Solomon Sea

(C) Bismarck Sea

(D) Arafura Sea

145. Where is the Headquarter of Zoological Survey of India located?

(A) Mumbai

(B) Delhi

(C) Kolkata

(D) Chennai

146. The South West monsoon engulfs the entire India by

(A) 5th June

(B) 15th June

(C) 1st July

(D) 15th July

147. Where was the first iron and steel industry of India established?

(A) Bhadravati

(B) Bhilai

(C) Jamshedpur

(D) Burnpur

148. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?

(A) Columbus - 1492

(B) Vasco de Gama - 1498

(C) Magellan - 1520

(D) Balboa - 1530

149. Which one of the following wavelengths of light is most effective in photosynthesis?

(A) Blue

(B) Green

(C) Orange

(D) Yellow

150. Human cloning is permitted in Britain for the purpose of

(A) Reproduction

(B) Research

(C) Therapeutics

(D) Genetics

151. Pick out the viral disease among the following

(A) Hepatitis

(B) Meningitis

(C) Arthritis

(D) Nephritis

152. Dolly, the World’s First cloned animal was a

(A) sheep

(B) cow

(C) goat

(D) pig

153. The large amount of sugar present in human blood is

(A) sucrose

(B) glucose

(C) fructose

(D) lactose

154. Which one of the following is a viral disease in man?

(A) Mumps

(B) Plague

(C) Cholera

(D) Syphilis

155. The major constituent uf gobar gas, is

(A) Carbon dioxide

(B) Methane

(C) Butane

(D) Isobutane

156. The expansion for AIDS is

(A) Active Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

(B) Acquired Individual Disease Syndrome

(C) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

(D) Acquired Immuno Disease Syndrome

157. Bee keeping is known as

(A) Sericulture

(B) Apiculture

(C) Aquaculture

(D) Agriculture

158. HYV refers to

(A) Hybrid yielding variety

(B) Human yellow virus

(C) High yielding variety

(D) Human yellow vaccine

159. Pick the odd one out based on crop season

(A) Rice

(B) Wheat

(C) Maize

(D) Cotton

160. The residue left after extracting juice from sugarbeet and sugarcane is called

(A) molasses

(B) bagasse

(C) whey

(D) biomass

161. The isotope of Uranium used in atomic reactors is

(A) U²³⁵

(B) U²³⁶

(C) U²³⁷

(D) U²³²

162. In the process of magnetisation of a bar

(A) The entire bulk of the bar gets magnetised

(B) Only the surface of the bar gets magnetised

(C) Only the ends of the bar get magnetised

(D) Only some parts of the outer layers of the bar get magnetised

163. A falling drop of rainwater acquires the spherical shape due to

(A) Viscosity

(B) Surface Tension

(C) Atmospheric pressure

(D) Gravitational force

164. Which is the coldest among the following?

(A) Mars

(B) Earth

(C) Pluto

(D) Mercury

165. The weakest of all fundamental forces is

(A) Gravitational force

(B) Electrostatic force

(C) Magnetic force

(D) Nuclear force

166. Among the defects of eye, the shortsightedness is called

(A) coma

(B) hypermetropia

(C) myopia

(D) astigmatism

167. Which one of the following is not a radio active element?

(A) Uranium

(B) Thorium

(C) Radium

(D) Cadmium

168. Velocity of sound in air does not change with the change of

(A) Temperature of air

(B) Pressure of air

(C) Moisture content in air

(D) Wind in the direction of propagation of sound

169. The greenhouse effect is caused by the higher level of which gas in the atmosphere?

(A) Carbon monoxide

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Nitrous oxide

(D) Sulphur dioxide

170. Candle is a mixture of

(A) Paraffin wax and stearic acid

(B) Bees wax and stearic acid

(C) Higher fatty acids and stearic acid

(D) Bees wax and paraffin wax

171. Ethanol containing 5% water is known as

(A) rectified spirit

(B) denatured spirit

(C) methylated alcohol

(D) power alcohol

172. Brass is an alloy of copper and

(A) tin

(B) zinc

(C) iron

(D) nickel

173. Who discovered X-rays?

(A) Goldstein

(B) Thomson

(C) Rontgen

(D) Wien

174. The density of a gas is maximum at

(A) Low temperature, low pressure

(B) Low temperature, high pressure

(C) High temperature, low pressure

(D) High temperature, high pressure

175. The important ore of aluminium is

(A) bauxite

(B) cryolite

(C) fluorspar

(D) haematite

176. Aqua regia is a 1: 3 mixture, by volume, of

(A) Conc. nitric acid and Conc. hydrochloric acid

(B) Conc. hydrochloric acid and Conc. nitric acid

(C) Conc. nitric acid and Conc. sulphuric acid

(D) Conc. sulphuric acid and Conc. nitric acid

177. The maximum number of goals scored by India in the history of international hockey tournaments were in 1932 Olympics in Los Angeles when it beat USA by

(A) 26-0

(B) 24-1

(C) 22-0

(D) 20-0

178. When was the Jawahar Rozgar Yojna launched?

(A) 1985

(B) 1987

(C) 1989

(D) 1991

179. The cause for the Tsunami, as deduced by the seismologists, is

(A) gravitational pull of the moon

(B) low pressure trough in the ocean

(C) deformation of sea floor and vertical displacement of water

(D) sudden change in the monsoon wind

180. Eden Garden (Kolkata) is associated with

(A) Basket Ball

(B) Football

(C) Cricket

(D) Hockey

181. Which one of the following states of India records the highest sex-ratio?

(A) Kerala

(B) Karnataka

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Tamilnadu

182. Major fishing grounds are found in

(A) Northern Hemisphere

(B) Southern Hemisphere

(C) Eastern Hemisphere

(D) Western Hemisphere

183. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India?

(A) 1952

(B) 1940

(C) 1942

(D) 1999

184. Which one of the following is not a HYV of wheat?

(A) Sonalika

(B) Ratna

(C) Kalyan Sona

(D) Girija

185. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere?

(A) 2 to 3 per cent

(B) 3 to 4 per cent

(C) 4 to 5 per cent

(D) 5 to 6 per cent

186. Who is the first Asian to become the Head of the prestigious Trinity College of Cambridge University?

(A) Amartya Sen

(B) Mahendra Chaudhury

(C) Nirod C. Chaudhury

(D) Ketaki Mushari Dyson

187. Who gave the concept of ‘Total Revolution’?

(A) Jayaprakash Narayan

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Karl Marx

(D) Lenin

188. The first mid-term elections for Lok Sabha were held in

(A) 1962

(B) 1971

(C) 1977

(D) 1980

189. Who declared as his ultimate aim the wiping of every tear from every eye?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Gandhiji

(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D) Sardar Patel

190. Japan’s Parliament is known as

(A) Diet

(B) Dail

(C) Yuan

(D) Shora

191. The convention that “once a speaker always. a speaker” is followed in

(A) UK

(B) USA

(C) France

(D) India

192. The Headquarters of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is at

(A) New York

(B) Paris

(C) Geneva

(D) Rome

193. Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam, the former Indian President, received the prestigious Bharat Ratna award in the year

(A) 1992

(B) 1995

(C) 1997

(D) 1998

194. The Indian actor who played a prominent role in the Hollywood production: “The Ghost and The Darkness” is

(A) OmPuri

(B) Naseeruddin Shah

(C) Amitabh Bachchan , (D) Anil Kapoor

195. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in

(A) 1947

(B) 1948

(C) 1949

(D) 1951

196. PSLV stands for

(A) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle

(B) Polish Satellite Launch Vehicle

(C) Perfect Satellite Launching Verifier

(D) Preparatory Satellite Launching Vehicle

197. Indira Gandhi Cup is associated with

(A) Basketball

(B) Football

(C) Boxing

(D) Cricket

198. Who is the author of the novel ‘DEVDAS’?

(A) Rabindranath Tagore

(B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

(C) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay

(D) Munshi Premchand

199. Nano technology deals with objects with dimensions in the range of

(A) 10^-3 m

(B) 10^-6 m

(C) 10^-9 m

(D) 10^-12 m

200. The moon is showing its same face to the earth because

(A) It is not rotating about its own axis

(B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite

(C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same

(D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution

Other Parts of the SSC Audit Exam november 2008:

SSC Section Officer Audit Paper I: Part A (English Language)

SSC Section Officer Audit Paper II (Arithmetic)

Tags: Audit, Question Paper, Section Officer, SSC

SSC Section Officer (Audit) Question Paper, Paper I: Nov 2008

Exam Name:

Section Officer (Audit)

Conducted By:

Staff Selection Commission (SSC)

Conducted On:

November 30, 2008

Maximum Marks:

200

Time Allowed:

2 Hours

We have split the Paper I of the SSC Audit Exam into two different parts of 100 questions each. This Part covers Part A (English Language) Objective Questions.

Paper I: PART - A ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions: In Question Nos. 1 to 10, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error mark (D) as your answer.

1. A moment delay/would have proved costly/ in the situation./No error.

2. Ram disappointed his mother/ as he did not/ write to her very often./No error.

3. After you will return/ from Chennai/ I will come and see you./ No error.

4. Scenes from the film / had to be censured/ before it was released./ No error.

5. When my sister was ill/ I went to the hospital/ on alternative days./ No error.

6 The beautiful/ surrounding of the place/ enchanted me./ No error.

7. No Porter being available/ he carried/ all his luggages himself./ No error.

8 He will not be able/ to cope up with/ the pressure of work./ No error.

9. Lasers are/ indispensable tools/ for the delicate eyes surgery./ No error.

10. I take great pleasure/ to welcome you/ to this institution./ No error.

Directions: In Question Nos. 11 to 15, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given.

11. Indignation

(A) hatred

(B) anger

(C) disapproval

(D) contempt

12. Acronym

(A) A word with two or more meanings

(B) A word of new coinage

(C) A word formed by the initial letters of words

(D) A word of picturesque effect

13. Meticulous

(A) interfere

(B) courage

(C) agreement

(D) careful

14. Rescind

(A) change

(B) revoke

(C) repeat

(D) reconsider

15. Antipathy

(A) dishonesty

(B) disturbance

(C) demonstration (D) dislike

Directions: In Question Nos. 16 to 20, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

16. APPARENT

(A) Illegible

(B) Hidden

(C) Mysterious

(D) Remote

17. ALIEN

(A) Native

(B) Domiciled

(C) Natural

(D) Resident

18. FUTILE

(A) upright

(B) costly

(C) eminent

(D) worthy

19. AUDACIOUS

(A) meek

(B) cowardly

(C) mild

(D) gentle

20. ARROGANT

(A) simple

(B) timid

(C) civilized

(D) modest

Directions: In Question Nos. 21 to 30, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate and suitable word.

21. The food that an average Indian eats has been found to be deficient _____ vitamins and proteins.

(A) of

(B) from

(C) with

(D) in

22. The patient is _____ of stomachache.

(A) suffering

(B) experiencing

(C) complaining

(D) afflicting

23. A good teacher should _____ responses from the students.

(A) elicit

(B) provoke

(C) command

(D) infer

24. Had he taken his degree five years ago he _____ got a promotion by now.

(A) might

(B) would have

(C) will be

(D) was

25. There will be a rush for seats when the train

(A) will arrive

(B) arrived

(C) is arriving

(D) arrives

26. He drove the car very fast _____

(A) Did he?

(B) Does he?

(C) Didn’t he?

(D) Was he?

27. He _____ wants to succeed in life must be prepared to work hard.

(A) whoever

(B) whom

(C) who

(D) whose

28. It is time you _____ home.

(A) go

(B) went

(C) come

(D) reach

29. _____ a walk in the morning will improve your health.

(A) Going to

(B) Go to

(C) Go for

(D) Going for

30. Government must _____ the rise in prices.

(A) cheque

(B) check

(C) cease

(D) seize

Directions: In Question Nos. 31 to 40, four alternatives are given for the underlined or given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined or given idiom/phrase.

31. The bus had a close shave as its driver swerved to the right a split second before the on-coming truck could run into it.

(A) serious accident

(B) close collision

(C) narrow escape

(D) deep dent

32. Fits and starts

(A) slowly

(B) not regularly

(C) continuously

(D) quickly

33. When the Inspector entered the class some of the students shook in their shoes.

(A) stamped the ground with their shoes

(B) showed signs of anger

(C) trembled with fear

(D) stood up to salute

34. In high spirits

(A) full of hope and enthusiasm

(B) under tremendous stress

(C) under the influence of liquor

(D) mentally deranged

35. He amassed his wealth through sharp practices.

(A) dishonest means

(B) illegal means

(C) intelligent decisions

(D) quick decisions

36. He is not in the good books of his boss.

(A) a lover of good books

(B) in favour with

(C) not of the same opinion as

(D) as good as

37. The officer is fed up with the complaints made against the clerk.

(A) annoyed

(B) disgusted

(C) pleased

(D) satisfied

38. A white elephant,

(A) a rare species of elephants

(B) an expensive gift

(C) a costly but useless possession

(D) a worthless thing

39. Ins and outs

(A) entry and exit points

(B) full details

(C) tactical moves

(D) complexity of character

40. All his ventures went to the winds.

(A) dissipated

(B) spread all over

(C) got speed of the winds

(D) became well-known

Directions: In Question Nos. 41 to 50, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

41. Government by a ruler who has unlimited power.

(A) Despotism

(B) Autocracy

(C) Monarchy

(D) Anarchy

42. An occasion of great importance

(A) exemplary

(B) momentous

(C) herculean

(D) grandiose

43. A person who is always hopeful and look: upon the brighter side of things

(A) florist

(B) artist

(C) theist

(D) optimist

44. Place of burial

(A) cave

(B) church

(C) synagogue

(D) cemetry

45. To have a very high opinion of oneself

(A) exaggeration

(B) adulation

(C) abundance

(D) conceited

46. One who believes in giving equal opportunity to women in all fields

(A) Fanatic

(B) Misogynist

(C) Philanderer

(D) Feminist

47. Inability to sleep

(A) hysteria

(B) insomnia

(C) aphasia

(D) amnesia

48. One who is given to pleasures of the flesh.

(A) terrestrian

(B) epicurean

(C) celestial

(D) pedestrian

49. A tank where fish or water plants are kept

(A) Aquarium

(B) Sanatorium

(C) Nursery

(D) Aviary

50. A person who never takes alcoholic drinks

(A) teetotaller

(B) alcoholic

(C) addict

(D) bagpiper

Directions: In Question Nos. 51 to 55, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt.

51.

(A) poignant

(B) relevent

(C) prevalent

(D) malignant

52.

(A) seize

(B) achieve

(C) wierd

(D) leisure

53.

(A) repent

(B) serpent

(C) flagrent

(D) reverent

54. (A) dining

(B) shining

(C) determining

(D) begining

55.

(A) vendetta ‘

(B) verisimilitude

(C) vicarious

(D) vociferrate

Directions: In Question Nos. 56 to 65, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at A, B and C which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is D.

56. He was weary of failure, Didn’t he?

(A) Isn’t he?

(B) Wasn’t he?

(C) Doesn’t he?

(D) No improvement

57. What you have been doing since the work­ shop last month?

(A) have you done

(B) you have done

(C) have you been doing

(D) No improvement

58. Keats says the idea very well in his poems.

(A) speaks

(B) describes

(C) expresses

(D) No improvement

59. The enemy soldiers went back hastily.

(A) returned

(B) retreated

(C) retrenched

(D) No improvement

60. No sooner had the teacher entered the room and the boys rushed to their seats.

(A) when

(B) than

(C) but

(D) No improvement

61. We have already disposed our old house.

(A) disposed off

(B) disposed out

(C) disposed of

(D) No improvement

62. We can buy anything in this shop, Can we?

(A) Isn’t it?

(B) Can’t we?

(C) Don’t we?

(D) No improvement

63. If I had followed your advice, I would not regret today.

(A) will not regret

(B) had not regretted

(C) would not have regretted

(D) No improvement

64. Somebody must be made to answer for the securities scam.

(A) to

(B) after

(C) upon

(D) No improvement

65. Corruption is the most serious problem in India.

(A) the more serious

(B) the seriouser

(C) serious

(D) No improvement

Directions: In Question Nos. 66 to 70, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

66. The cat is running after the rat.

(A) The rat was being run after by the cat

(B) The rat is being run after by the cat

(C) The rat is run after by the cat

(D) The cat is being run after by the rat

67. English is spoken all over the world.

(A) All over the world English speaks

(B) English speaks all over the world

(C) The whole world speaks English

(D) People speak English all over the world

68. The boys elected Mohan captain.

(A) The boys were elected captain by Mohan

(B) Mohan is elected captain by the boys

(C) Mohan was elected captain by the boys

(D) Mohan and the boys elected the captain

69. They threw away the Rubbish.

(A) The Rubbish will be thrown away

(B) The Rubbish was being thrown away

(C) The Rubbish was thrown away

(D) The Rubbish thrown away

70. Let him see the picture.

(A) Let the picture be seen by him

(B) The picture is seen by him

(C) Let him the picture be seen

(D) The picture is seen by him

Directions: In Question Nos. 71 to 80, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four Parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations s correct. Then find the correct answer.

71.

1. There was a lamp hanging on the wall

P. Then he picked a lot of jewels off the trees in the garden

Q. He put the lamp inside his shirt

R. He put them in his pockets

S. Aladdin climbed a ladder and took down the lamp

6. Then he put more jewels inside his shirt on top of the lamp.

(A) PRQS

(B) RSPQ

(C) SQPR

(D) QSRP

72.

1. Gopal and Sheela felt very bored one evening

P. Gopal wanted to stay on for the next show

Q. So they decided to go to the cinema

R. They reached the theatre in time for the interval

S. On the way there was a traffic jam

6. But Sheela wanted to return home

(A) PSQR

(B) SQPR

(C) QSRP

(D) SQRP

73.

1. Ferdinand rose up to receive the messenger

P. At the end of his account he was moved to tears

Q. He fell on his knees and thanked him

R. He made him sit on a level with himself

S. He listened to the circumstantial account of his voyage

6. It was a great conquest the Almighty gave to a sovereign.

(A) RPSQ

(B) RSPQ

(C) QPRS

(D) PKSQ

74.

1. In order to judge the inside of others, study your own

P. and though one has one prevailing passion

Q. for, men, in general are very much alike

R. yet their operations are very much the same

S. and another has another

6. and whatever engages or disgusts, pleases or offends you in others, will engage, disgust, please or offend others in you.

(A) QPSR

(B) PQRS

(C) RQPS

(D) PRQS

75.

1. Paucity of funds

P. universities cannot make

Q. essentials like books

R. sufficient expenditure on

S. ordains that the

6. journals and equipment.

(A) QPRS

(B) SPRQ

(C) PQRS

(D) QSRP

76.

1. The symptoms of

P. and certain other changes

Q. what is popularly called

R. serious forgetfulness, confusion

S “serility” include

6. in personality behaviour.

(A) QSRP

(B) PQRS

(C) SRQP

(D) QPSR

77.

1. When they heard the bell P. out of his clothes

Q. as quickly

R. every boy scrambled

S. and got into bed

6. as possible.

(A) QRPS

(B) PSQR

(C) RQSP

(D) RPS.Q

78.

1. Thirty years from now

P. and industry will be scarce

Q. almost half of the people

R. that water for drinking, farming

S. then living may find

6. according to a study by Dr. S. Posten.

(A) SPQR

(B) SRPQ

(C) QSRP

(D) QSPR

79.

1. A good cry can be a

P. bring relief from anxiety

Q. prevent a headache or

R. and it might even

S. healthy way to

6. other physical consequence

(A) SRQP

(B) SRPQ

(C) SPRQ

(D) SPQR

80.

1. Long, long, time ago

P. who lived with his three wives

Q. in a country called Kosala

R. there ruled a noble king

S. and four sons

6. beautiful, graceful and well versed in all shastras.

(A) PQRS

(B) SPQR

(C) RQPS

(D) QRSP

Directions: In the following passage (Question Nos. 81 to 90), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

Cloze Passage

Scientists have developed an electronic circuit that 81 the wiring of the human brain in some ways - an achievement that 82 revolu-tionalise computer science and 83 understanding of how nature’s most powerful 84 works. The 85 built on a 86 chip the size of a finger nail, is 87 from the thinking machines of science-fiction. For one thing it cannot 88 , the way the 89 can. But researchers say it could 90 in better speech and object recognition by computers.

81.

(A) imitates

(B) mimics

(C) limits

(D) expands

82.

(A) shall

(B) ought

(C) could

(D) have

83.

(A) exceed

(B) improve

(C) impair

(D) develop

84.

(A) processor

(B) electronic system

(C) circuit

(D) brain

85.

(A) computer

(B) monitor

(C) system

(D) circuit

86.

(A) silicon

(B) minute

(C) big

(D) brown

87.

(A) for

(B) above

(C) beyond

(D) far

88.

(A) equate

(B) teach

(C) learn

(D) recognise

89.

(A) computer

(B) processor

(C) chip

(D) brain

90.

(A) yield

(B) give

(C) respond

(D) result

Directions: In Question Nos. 91 to 100, you have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

PASSAGE - I

For any activity, discipline is the key word. It should begin with the self, then be extended to the family, neighbours, environment, workplace, society and the nation at large. It is from society that inspiration is drawn. Systems and institutions should provide the inspiration to society through performance which in turn will provide leaders, capable of rebuilding and restructuring society into a strong nation. The nationalists’ spirit then becomes infectious.

91. What is the key word for Activity according to the passage?

(A) Active Discipline

(B) Key Discipline

(C) Self Discipline

(D) Discipline

92. According to the passage Discipline should begin

(A) with the self

(B) with the self, family and neighbours

(C) with the self, family, neighbours and environment

(D) with the self, family, workplace, society

93. According to the passage, where do we draw inspiration from?

(A) Society

(B) Society and nation

(C) Environment

(D) Nothing in particular

94. According to the passage, a good leader should be capable of

(A) rebuilding a nation the way he/she likes

(B) rebuilding and restructuring society into a strong nation

(C) building a national consensus

(D) rebuilding and structuring a nation

95. What is the meaning of the word “infectious” in the passage?

(A) dangerous

(B) spreading to everyone

(C) spreading to everyone by germs

(D) give disease

PASSAGE -II

A 23-year-old British woman was yesterday sentenced to six months in jail for leaving her two-year-old daughter home alone eight-hours-a-day, five days a week for a year while she went to work. The young mother from the central town of Warwick initially hired a babysitter, when she landed a job in a travel agency but eventually reached the point when she could no longer afford the facility, prosecutors said. The woman then started leaving the child home by herself, providing it with food and toys and removing all potentially dangerous objects from its reach. At first the mother came home at lunch time but had to stop because her daughter threw tantrums every time she left to go back to work.

The mother, who was not identified, told the court, “If I had money I would not have done it. It was a case of that or not keeping my job and living on benefit”.

The judge, Mr. Harrison Hall, however said “Having had a child, the absolute priority is to look after it. There must be an alternative to leaving a child alone all day, a thing you would not do even to a dog”.

96. The young mother had to work in the office

(A) 40 hours a week

(B) 8 hours a week

(C) 48 hours a week

(D) all the seven days a week

97. The word ‘Facility’ in sentence refers to

(A) her job in the travel agency

(B) living in a well furnished apartment

(C) getting adequate salary

(D) employing someone to look after the child

98- The mother stopped coming home for lunch because

(A) her house was far away from the office

(B) she was not able to control her angry baby

(C) she had to work extra hours to earn more

(D) she was not interested in looking after the baby

99. The sentence “If I had money, I would not have done it” means

(A) I had money and so I did not leave the baby alone

(B) I had money and so I left the baby alone

(C) I had no money and so I left the baby alone

(D) I had no money and so I did not leave the baby alone

100. Which one of the following statements about the judge Mr. Harrison Hall is correct?

(A) He can tolerate cruelty to children but not to animals

(B) He can tolerate cruelty to animals but not to children

(C) He can tolerate cruelty both to children and animals

(D) He can tolerate cruelty neither to children nor to animals

Other Parts of the SSC Audit Exam November 2008:

SSC Section Officer (Audit) Paper I: Part B (General Awareness)

SSC Section Officer (Audit) Paper II (Arithmetic)

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SSC Tax Assistant Result on sscresults.nic.in

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English Sample Paper: Section Officer Audit Sept 2007

General Awareness Sample Paper: SSC Audit Sept 2007. We are not posting the Part II of the exam (Arithmetic) because it will not display correctly in the browser. We will try to provide a download for that at a later stage. The Part III will cover the English Language Test.

PART III : ENGLISH

Directions. Q. 126-130 : In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

126. He is accused of on sitting on the fence.
(a) observing the scene
(b) resting on fence
(c) hesitating which side to take
(d) sitting back and enjoying the fun

127. You have to read between the lines to understand most of the symbolic writing.
(a) read again and again
(b) understand the hidden meaning
(c) know the symbols
(d) look for many meanings

128. The ruling party has been warned not to play to the gallery.
(a) to give importance to the common man
(b) to try to be clever
(c) to seek to win approval
(d) to side-track the issue

129. In the securities scam, the national credibility was at stake.
(a) on trial
(b) under pressure
(c) in danger
(d) challenged

130. There is no love lost between any two neighboring countries in the world.
(a) stop loving
(b) not on good terms
(c) in danger
(d) challenged

Directions. Q. 131-135: In these questions, group of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly -spelt. Find the wrongly-spelt word and mark in the Answer-Sheet.
131.
(a) Sergent
(b) Silhousette
(c) Session
(d) Somnambulist

132.
(a) Façade
(b) Inept
(c) Quotation
(d) Pursuasive

133.
(a) Demeanour
(b) Deodorise
(c) Demonstretor
(d) Demoralise

134.
(a) Courageous
(b) Outrangeous
(c) Languoreous
(d) Spacious

135.
(a) Lapped
(b) Murmurred
(c) Deterred
(d) Worshipped

Directions. Q. 136-140: In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest pf the passage is spilt into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer.

136.
1. We do not know whether the machines are the masters or we are.
P: They must be given rather ‘fed’ with coal and given petrol to drink from time to time
Q: Already man spends most of his time looking after and waiting upon them.
R: Yet we have grown so dependent on them that they have almost becomes the masters now.
S. It is very true that they were made for the sole purpose of being man’s servants.
6. And if they don’t get their meals when they expect them, they will just refuse to work.
(a) RSQP
(b) RSPQ
(c) SPQR
(d) SRQP

137.
1. The king of the oilfield is the driller.
P: During the process of drilling, gas and oil may be met.
Q: He is very skilled man.
R: If this rushes out and catches fire it is dangerous.
S: Sometimes he sends his drill more than a mile.
6. This danger is well-known and steps are taken to prevent it.
(a) PQRS
(b) PRQS
(c) QPRS
(d) RSQP

138.
1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to retrieve.
P: All valuables were smashed or stolen.
Q: The curtains were burned; books were ripped to shreds.
R: Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere.
S: The house had been completely ransacked.
6. Mrs. M stood in the center of her bedroom looking at a ruined copy of the Holy book, forcing back her tears.
(a) PQRS
(b) PRQS
(c) SPRQ
(d) RSQP

139.
1. The student came late to the school.
P: He went home weeping.
Q: The watchman didn’t allow him inside the school.
R: The boy was waiting outside for some time.
S: He then decide to go home.
6. It was bad day for him.
(a) QSPR
(b) QSRP
(c) QRSP
(d) QPSR

140.
1. Freedom is first of all a personal matter.
P: A man who will not submit to the discipline of his chosen occupation is not free to be a great surgeon, or engineer, or golfer, or executive.
Q: Life imposes a drastic discipline on all living things, including human beings.
R: We are free to eat poison or jump off a tall building, but not to escape the consequences.
S: We are bound by the laws of cause and effect.
6. Nature, moreover, binds us by arbitrary limits of mind and body; we are not free to do, by whatever effort, what is beyond our capacity.
(a) QRSP
(b) RSPQ
(c) PQRS
(d) SRQP

Directions. Q.141-150: In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
141. A short poem or speech addressed to the spectators after the conclusion of a drama
(a) Prologue
(b) Dialogue
(c) Epilogue
(d) Monologue

142. One who loves books
(a) Scholar
(b) Bibliographer
(c) Teacher
(d) Bibliophile

143. Belief that war and violence are unjustified
(a) Neutralization
(b) Pessimism
(c) Naturalization
(d) Pacifism

144. A group of girls
(a) Bevy
(b) covey
(c) Troupe
(d) Coterie

145. Causing or ending in death
(a) Fatal
(b) Deadly
(c) Serious
(d) Dangerous

146. Military waking signal sounded in the morning
(a) Reveille
(b) Lullaby
(c) Anthem
(d) Soprano

147. Study of insects
(a) Ecology
(b) Embryology
(c) Entomology
(d) Biology

148. A person in his seventies
(a) Sexagenarian
(b) Septuagenarian
(c) Centurion
(d) Patriarch

149. One who has obstinate and narrow religious views
(a) Theosophist
(b) Bigot
(c) Philosopher
(d) Theologian

150. The sound of a funeral bell
(a) Knell
(b) Spell
(c) Dong
(d) Ding-dong

Directions. Q. 151-155: In these questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

151. Tell him to get out of our house.
(a) He is told to get out of our house.
(b) Let him be told to get out of our house.
(c) He might be told to get out of our house.
(d) He should be told that he may get out of our house.

152. Those who worked hard seldom obtained good marks.
(a) Good marks were seldom being obtained by those who worked hard.
(b) Good marks are seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
(c) Seldom had good marks been obtained by those who worked hard.
(d) Good marks were seldom obtained by those who worked hard.

153. Has the price-rise affected all the people?
(a) Have all the people been affected by the price-rise?
(b) Are all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(c) Had all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(d) Are all the people affected by the price-rise?

154. They pick the flowers fresh every morning.
(a) The fresh flowers are picked every morning by them.
(b) The flowers are fresh and picked every morning by them.
(c) The flowers are picked fresh every morning by them.
(d) The picked flowers are fresh every morning by them.

155. Everyone looked up to him.
(a) He was looked up to by everyone.
(b) He was looked up by everyone.
(c) He is looked up by everyone.
(d) He looks up by everyone.

Directions. Q. 156-165: In these questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d).

156. He can’t read this, nor can I.
(a) no, I never can
(b) no, I can’t
(c) no, I don’t
(d) No improvement

157. I brought four dozen of mangoes.
(a) dozens of mango
(b) dozens of mangoes
(c) dozens mangoes
(d) No improvement

158. The master was good at using pleasant names for unpleasant things in order to hoodwink the laboureres.
(a) euphemisms
(b) euphoria
(c) pleasantries
(d) No improvement

159. They had to put off until later the open-air performance because of heavy rain.
(a) postpone
(b) delay
(c) adjourn
(d) No improvement.

160. Dozens of phrases can be offered to describe style but perhaps the best one is : “Style-it is the man.”
(a) but the best one is : ” Style is the man.”
(b) but perhaps the best one is : ” Style is the man.”
(c) but the best one is : ” Style is the man.”
(d) No improvement.

161. They have bought a new car, isn’t it?
(a) haven’t they?
(b) don’t they?
(c) have they?
(d) No improvement.

162. Only a few persons can stand on entreaties.
(a) against
(b) with
(c) in
(d) No improvement.

163. I had my ears bored so I could wear my diamond ear-rings
(a) holed
(b) pricked
(c) pierced
(d) No improvement.

164. It is interesting to correspond the history of the 19^th century with its literature.
(a) corroborate
(b) correlate
(c) command
(d) No improvement.

165. Didn’t Mr. Sharma come to the office yet?
(a) Hadn’t
(b) Hasn’t
(c) Isn’t
(d) No improvement.

Directions. Q. 166-175: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

In most enterprises around the world, it is the Information Technology infrastructure that is undergoing the most rapid upgradation. Perhaps this is a direct result of the rate of …..166….. in the Information Technology industry, ……167….. with new …….168…… and business ……169…… invading our consciousness everyday. In this context, it is …..170…. of this new technology that looms……171….. as an issue …..172…. chief information officers of end-user organizations. Given the ….173…. of magnitude….174….. the investments required and associated …..175….. in human terms in order to effect change of this magnitude, this concern is hardly surprising.

166.
(a) rejection
(b) growth
(c) obsolescence
(d) magnificence

167.
(a) where
(b) hence
(c) what
(d) since

168.
(a) armies
(b) agencies
(c) enemies
(d) technologies

169.
(a) relations
(b) prospects
(c) applications
(d) agreements

170.
(a) absorption
(b) development
(c) delineation
(d) filtration

171.
(a) large
(b) wide
(c) across
(d) close

172.
(a) eluding
(b) facing
(c) confounding
(d) comprising

173.
(a) order
(b) priority
(c) quality
(d) gravity

174.
(a) in
(b) on
(c) for
(d) of

175.
(a) choices
(b) costs
(c) feelings
(d) possibilities

Directions. Q.176-180. In these questions you have one brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Passage
Every society must develop in its people a social responsibility. This is something that we, in India, have been falling short of.
We are very individualistic, and don’t relate ourselves to our society as such. Very seldom do we actually go out and do something, which is beneficial to the society and which does not have a side-benefit for ourselves, as individuals. And this is another thing that must be built into the education system.
Our young boys and girls coming out must have a feeling for our society. There is a special responsibility that you have, that we all have in building up the spirit.. We have to see that what we learn is not used only; for our own personal benefits, that every task we do is such that it benefits the weak and the poor, as Gandhiji has said.
India, today, is striving out into the modern world. We are looking ahead to new technology to high technology, new methods, new types of employment, and an new dynamism in our economic growth.
But while we look ahead, we must not forget the millions who are still Below the Poverty Line. When we look at technology, when we look at science, when we look at development, our attention must not be diverted from what is still a major block in India -the poor and deprived groups. And everything we do must be targetted in a manner that the benefit will flow to the weak, the deprived and the depressed.
176. The author says that India
(a) wants to acquire new technology.
(b) does not want new technology.
(c) already has sufficient new technology.
(d) can export technology to other countries.

177. The author suggests that
(a) the poor and the weak must benefit from new technology.
(b) the poor and week produce new technology.
(c) the new technology must help the rich.
(d) the new technology is useless to the poor and weak.

178. What value does the author want to build into the educational system?
(a) Individual must work for themselves.
(b) Individual must work for the benefit of the society without expecting any return or personal benefits.
(c) Society must work for the benefit of the individuals.
(d) Side-benefit is a must for any special work.

179. According to the author, the Indian people
(a) are socially very responsible.
(b) lack social responsibility.
(c) have several responsibilities.
(d) are highly responsible.

180. Indians do not do anything beneficial to society unless
(a) there is a benefit for themselves.
(b) it involves personal sacrifices.
(c) other individuals are benefited.
(d) the whole society benefits by it.

Directions. Q.181-190. In these questions some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [¦] corresponding to appropriate letter (a), (b) and (c). If there is no error then anser is (d).

181. I meant nothing (a) /less than (b) /to compel you to come. (c)/ No error (d).

182. Females (a)/ are not appointed (b)/ in our college. (c)/ No error (d).

183. He has read four plays (a)/ written by Shakespeare (b)/ by the end of his vacation. (c)/ No error (d).

184. The officer (a)/is angry on the clerk (b)/for not attending to the work. (c)/ No error (d).

185. Banks were developed to keep people’s money safe (a)/ and to make it available (b) / when they need it. c)/ No error (d).

186. Based on the newspaper reports, (a)/ we can conclude that (b)/ many accidents caused by reckless driving. (c)/ No error (d).

187. He walked (a)/ till the (b)/end of the street. (c)/ No error (d).

188. The strain of all (a)/ the difficulties and vexation and anxieties (b)/ are more than he could bear. (c)/ No error (d).

189. In the background they could hear John laughing and joking loudly, (a)/ John was the life and soul of  any party. (b)/ and he was cracking a joke every few minutes. (c)/ No error (d).

190. I was thinking (a)/ if I could do (b)/ anything to help. (c)/ No error (d).

Directions. Q.191-195. in these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

191. Impious
(a) Holy
(b) Mischievous
(c) Shrewd
(d) Irreverent

192. Freelance
(a) Self-betrayed
(b) Self-centred
(c) Self-employed
(d) Self-driven

193. Slither
(a) Slide
(b) Move
(c) Shake
(d) Slip

194. Apposite
(a) Contrary
(b) Bitter
(c) Appropriate
(d) Misleading

195. Scorn
(a) Ridicule
(b) Laugh
(c) Condemn
(d) Criticise

Directions. Q.196-200. in these questions, choose the word opposite to the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
196. Cursory
(a) Final
(b) Through
(c) Impulsive
(d) Customary

197. Lackadaisical
(a) Enthusiastic
(b) Intelligent
(c) Classical
(d) Irresponsible

198. Sublime
(a) Inferior
(b) Deficit
(c) Ridiculous
(d) Crooked

199. Evident
(a) Definite
(b) Careless
(c) Clear
(d) Obscure

200. Insolent
(a) Arrogant
(b) Humble
(c) Ashamed
(d) Ignorant

Answers Part - III

1. (b)	2. (a)	3. (c)	4. (a)	5. (a)
6. (d)	7. (c)	8. (c)	9. (b)	10. (d)
11. (b)	12. (a)	13. (c)	14. (d)	15. (c)
16. (d)	17. (d)	18. (c)	19. (a)	20. (a)
21. (c)	22. (b)	23. (b)	24. (a)	25. (b)
26. (d)	27. (a)	28. (c)	29. (a)	30. (d)
31. (d)	32. (a)	33. (a)	34. (c)	35. (a)
36. (b)	37. (c)	38. (b)	39. (b)	40. (b)
41. (b)	42. (a)	43. (c)	44. (b)	45. (a)
46. (b)	47. (a)	48. (d)	49. (b)	50. (a)
51. (a)	52. (b)	53. (b)	54. (a)	55. (b)
56. (d)	57. (a)	58. (b)	59. (a)	60. (c)
61. (b)	62. (c)	63. (b)	64. (a)	65. (d)
66. (c)	67. (a)	68. (c)	69. (a)	70. (b)
71. (a)	72. (a)	73. (d)	74. (b)	75. (b)

Tags: Sample Paper, Section Officer, SSC

General Awareness Sample Paper: SSC Audit Sept 2007

This is in series of the past year Question Papers for SSC (Commercial Audit) Examination. We have divided the Question Paper in four sections. In Part I we will cover General Knowledge. Please read this carefully.

Part I : General Awareness

1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.

7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny

8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.

9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall

19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.

21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) methane and ethane.
(b) methane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.

22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis

23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini

26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria

29. What is the principal one of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) ” all other things variable ”
(b) “other things increasing”
(c) “other things being equal”
(d) “all other things decreasing”

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.

35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.

40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.

41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual

42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.

46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.

47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas

48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.

49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.

50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon

51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.

52. What was the original name of “Nurjahan”?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878

54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.

55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.

56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.

57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang

58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.

59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.

60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.

61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.

62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi

63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.

64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis

65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.

66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.

67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars

68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.

69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.

70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.

71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.

72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.

73. “Slash and Burn agriculture” is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.

74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.

75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.

Answers Part - I

1. (d)	2. (d)	3. (b)	4. (c)	5. (a)
6. (d)	7. (b)	8. (b)	9. (a)	10. (b)
11. (d)	12. (a)	13. (a)	14. (b)	15. (c)
16. (a)	17. (d)	18. (a)	19. (b)	20. (a)
21. (c)	22. (b)	23. (b)	24. (a)	25. (d)
26. (c)	27. (c)	28. (d)	29. (b)	30. (a)
31. (c)	32. (c)	33. (c)	34. (a)	35. (c)
36. (d)	37. (b)	38. (a)	39. (a)	40. (b)
41. (d)	42. (a)	43. (b)	44. (a)	45. (c)
46. (d)	47. (d)	48. (d)	49. (b)	50. (a)
51. (c)	52. (d)	53. (d)	54. (b)	55. (a)
56. (b)	57. (c)	58. (d)	59. (c)	60. (d)
61. (a)	62. (a)	63. (a)	64. (d)	65. (d)
66. (a)	67. (b)	68. (b)	69. (a)	70. (b)
71. (d)	72. (d)	73. (a)	74. (d)	75. (a)