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BSNL TTA: Sample Question Paper (Basic Engineering)

As posted earlier BSNL is Recruiting TTAs (Telecom Technical Assistants) in many states. Here is a sample Question Paper for the TTA Exam to be conducted by BSNL. It has been made according to the Syllabus.

Sample Question Paper - BSNL TTA Exam

Paper - II (Basic Engineering) BSNL TTA Exam

1. X² - 4X - 2Y + Y² = 4 represents a circle with

(a) radius = 3

(b) radius = 4

(c) radius = 2

(d) radius = 5

2. Which of these represent two parallel lines:

(a) Y - 4X - 4 = 0

(b) Y + AX - 4 = 0

(c) Y - 4X - 1 =0

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iii)

(c) (ii) and (iii)

(d) None of these.

3. The conjugate of complex numbers 3 + 2j is

(a) 3 - 2j

(b) 2 + 3j

(c) 2 - 3j

(d) 3 + 4j

4. A Square matrix each of whose diagonal element is 1 and each of the non-diagonal element is zero is called

(a) Null matrix

(b) Unit matrix

(c) Diagonal matrix

(d) Orthogonal matrix

5. The determinant of matrix      is

(a) 1

(b) 9

(c) 15

(d) 21

6. The charge of an electron is equal to

(a) 1.6 x 10^-16 C

(b) -1.6 x 10^‑16 C

(c) 1.6 x 10¹⁹ C

(d) -1.6 x 1019 C

7. The potential energy of a charged conductor is

(a) 1/2 CV²

(b) 1/2 QV

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

8. Capacitors are mainly used in

(a) Electrical instruments

(b) Storage of electrical energy

(c) Overcoming voltage fluctuations

(d) All the above

9. Two capacities of 4 μF and 12 μF are joined in parallel. The total capacitance is

(a) 8 μF

(b) 16 μF

(c) 3 μF

(f) 2 μF

10. What is the total resistance between points ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the given circuit

(a) 12/7 Ω

(b) 15 Ω

(c) 7 Ω

(d) 7/12 Ω

11. A current of 12 A is passing through a pure resistive circuit when the potential difference of 60 volts is applied across it, if the potential difference applied is reduced to 12 V, the current would be

(a) 12/5 A

(b) 60 A

(c) 12 A

(d) 2 A

12. Which of these normally used household electrical bulbs will be having maximum resistance.

(a) 100 Watt bulb

(b) 50 Watt bulb

(c) 200 Watt bulb

(d) 25 Watt bulb

13.The distance of point P (4, 3) from the origin will be

(a) 7

(b) 1

(c) 5

(d) 9

14. The slope of the line passing from points (7, 3) and (5, 1) is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

15. A line perpendicular to line 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 can be

(a) 4x + 3y + 4 = 0

(b) 4x - 3y + 3 = 0

(c) 3x - 4y + 5 = 0

(d) 3x - 4y + 2 = 0.

16. The centre of the circle x² + 6x - 4y + y² + 12 = 0 will be at

(a) (-3, 2)

(b) (3, -2)

(c) (-2, 3)

(d) (2, -3)

17. The product of (3 + 4j) and its conjugate is

(a) 7

(b) 25

(c) 12

(d) 21

18. During charging of a lead acid cell, the specific gravity of electrolyte will

(a) Increase

(b) Decrease

(c) Remain constant

(d) Increase then Decrease

19. The decimal number ‘12′ is represented in binary system as

(a) 1100

(b) 0110

(c) 1010

(d) 1110

20. What is the value of current that will flow when a p. d. 200 V is applied across a circuit of 50 Ω resistance?

(a) 4 A

(b) 0.4 A

(c) 10 A

(d) 1 A

21. If both the inputs to a Nand Gate are ‘1′, the output would be

(a) 1

(b) 0

22. If input ‘A’ is 1 and input ‘B’ is 0, then output X will be

(a) 0

(b) 1

23. The truth-table of a Nand Gate is

(a)

A	B	X
0	0	1
0	1	1
1	0	1
1	1	0

(b)

A	B	X
0	0	0
0	1	0
1	0	0
1	1	1

(c)

A	B	X
0	0	0
0	1	1
1	0	0
1	1	1

(d) None of these

24. IC chip is usually made of

(a) Lead

(b) Silicon

(c) Chromium.

(d) None of these.

25. Below given network is connected to a 16 V battery with internal resistance of 1 Ω. What will be current drawn from the battery?

(a) 2 A

(b) 3 A

(c) 12/7 A

(d) 7/12 A

26.Determine the equivalent resistance of the following network:

(a) 6 Ω

(b) 12 Ω

(c) 3 Ω

(d) 9 Ω.

27.A Zener diode is

(a) Forward biased heavily doped silicon p-n junction

(b) Reversed biased heavily doped silicon p-n junction

(c) Forward biased diode operating at breakdown point

(d) Is used as rectifying device

28. Crystal oscillator is used when frequency required is

(a) High

(b) Low

(c) Constant

(d) Varying.

29. What is the energy in a quantum of radiation having a wave length of 5000 A?

(a) 3.98 x 10^-19 J

(b) 3.98 x 10-⁹ J

(c) 2.9 x 10^-19 J

(d) 7.9 x 10^-19 J.

30. Which of these cannot store energy?

(a) Capacitor

(b) Inductor

(c) Resistance

(d) LC circuit.

31. A short bar of magnet placed with its axis at 30⁰ with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.16 T experiences a torque of magnitude 0.032 J. What is the magnetic moment of the magnet?

(a) 0.40 JT^-1

(b) 4.0 JT^-1

(c) 0.04 JT^-1

(d) 0.2 JT^-1

32. The total force on a charge ‘q’ with velocity “V” in an electric field ‘E’ and magnetic field ‘B’ will be

(a) q (E + V x B)

(b) q(E + V.B)

(c) qE + VxB

(d) q(B + V x E)

33. The magnetic field B at the centre of a circular current loop of radius ‘a’ is given by

(a) B =μ₀ I/2a

(b) B = μ₀ I/a

(c) B = 2μ₀ I/a

(d)B = μ₀ a/2I

34. If f = x² + 4xy + y² + 9, then which of the following is not true:

(a) ∂f/∂x = 2x + 4y

(b) ∂f/∂y = 4x + 2y

(c) ∂²f/∂x² = 2

(d) ∂²f/∂x∂y = 4

35. A hollow metal ball 8 cm in diameter is given a charge of - 4 x 10^-8 C. The potential on the surface of the ball is

(a) - 9000 V

(b) - 900 V

(c) - 90 V

(d) Zero.

36. The effective capacitance between X and Y is

(a) 8/3 µF

(b) 7/6 µF

(c) 5/6 µF

(d) 2 µF.

37. The amount of work done is joules in carrying a charge + Q alongwith path ABCD and back to A between two oppositely charged plates is:

(a) Q

(b) 4Q

(c)Q/2

(d) Zero.

38. How many electrons are contained in 1C?

(a) 6.25 x 10¹⁸

(b) 6.25 x 10¹⁹

(c) 6.25 x 10²⁰

(d) 6.25 x 10²¹

39. The phase angle between voltage and current in an a. c. circuit through a pure capacitance is

(a) 180°

(b) 90°

(c) 60°

(d) 0°

40. The permeability of a material is 0.998. It is:

(a) Diamagnetic

(b) Paramagnetic

(c) Ferromagnetic

(d) Anti ferromagnetic.

41. The ratio of the specific charge of an electron to that of a positron is

(a) 1:1

(b) 1:2

(c) 2:1

(d) 4:1.

42. With increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity of intrinsic semiconductor

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) First increases then decreases

(d) First decreases then increases.

43. In a common collector circuit, input resistance is:

(a) Very high

(b) Very low

(c) Zero

(d) Moderate.

44. A electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom. If R = 10⁷/m, the frequency of emitted radiations will be

(a) 3/16 x 10⁵ Hz

(b) 3/16 x 10¹⁵ Hz

(c) 9/16 x 10¹⁵ Hz

(d) 3/4 x 10¹⁵ Hz.

45. I amu. equals

(a) 1.67 x 10^-27 g

(b) 1.67 x 10^-28 g

(c) 1.67 x 10^-29 g

(d) 1.67 x 10^-27 kg

46. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec both with 50 and 40 cms of a stretched wire of a sonometer. The frequency of the tuning fork is

(a) 36 Hz

(b) 50 Hz

(c) 90Hz

(d) 110 Hz

47. A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude 4 cm. At what displacement its energy is half kinetic and half potential

(a) 2√2cm

(b) √2 cm

(c) 2 cm

(d) 1 cm.

48. An electron moves with a constant velocity V parallel to the direction of uniform magnetic field ‘B’. The force experienced by the electron is

(a) BeV

(b) eV/B

(c)B/eV

(d) Zero.

49.A charged particle is moving along the axis of X. If an electric field is applied along the axis of Y, the motion of the particle in Y-Y plane will be

(a) Elliptical

(b) Parabolic

(c) Circular

(d) Linear

50. An electric or magnetic field cannot accelerate

(a) Electrons

(b) Protons

(c) Neutrons

(d) Alpha particles

Recommended Book for TTA Exam

Tags: BSNL, TTA

English Sample Paper: Section Officer Audit Sept 2007

General Awareness Sample Paper: SSC Audit Sept 2007. We are not posting the Part II of the exam (Arithmetic) because it will not display correctly in the browser. We will try to provide a download for that at a later stage. The Part III will cover the English Language Test.

PART III : ENGLISH

Directions. Q. 126-130 : In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

126. He is accused of on sitting on the fence.
(a) observing the scene
(b) resting on fence
(c) hesitating which side to take
(d) sitting back and enjoying the fun

127. You have to read between the lines to understand most of the symbolic writing.
(a) read again and again
(b) understand the hidden meaning
(c) know the symbols
(d) look for many meanings

128. The ruling party has been warned not to play to the gallery.
(a) to give importance to the common man
(b) to try to be clever
(c) to seek to win approval
(d) to side-track the issue

129. In the securities scam, the national credibility was at stake.
(a) on trial
(b) under pressure
(c) in danger
(d) challenged

130. There is no love lost between any two neighboring countries in the world.
(a) stop loving
(b) not on good terms
(c) in danger
(d) challenged

Directions. Q. 131-135: In these questions, group of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly -spelt. Find the wrongly-spelt word and mark in the Answer-Sheet.
131.
(a) Sergent
(b) Silhousette
(c) Session
(d) Somnambulist

132.
(a) Façade
(b) Inept
(c) Quotation
(d) Pursuasive

133.
(a) Demeanour
(b) Deodorise
(c) Demonstretor
(d) Demoralise

134.
(a) Courageous
(b) Outrangeous
(c) Languoreous
(d) Spacious

135.
(a) Lapped
(b) Murmurred
(c) Deterred
(d) Worshipped

Directions. Q. 136-140: In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest pf the passage is spilt into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer.

136.
1. We do not know whether the machines are the masters or we are.
P: They must be given rather ‘fed’ with coal and given petrol to drink from time to time
Q: Already man spends most of his time looking after and waiting upon them.
R: Yet we have grown so dependent on them that they have almost becomes the masters now.
S. It is very true that they were made for the sole purpose of being man’s servants.
6. And if they don’t get their meals when they expect them, they will just refuse to work.
(a) RSQP
(b) RSPQ
(c) SPQR
(d) SRQP

137.
1. The king of the oilfield is the driller.
P: During the process of drilling, gas and oil may be met.
Q: He is very skilled man.
R: If this rushes out and catches fire it is dangerous.
S: Sometimes he sends his drill more than a mile.
6. This danger is well-known and steps are taken to prevent it.
(a) PQRS
(b) PRQS
(c) QPRS
(d) RSQP

138.
1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to retrieve.
P: All valuables were smashed or stolen.
Q: The curtains were burned; books were ripped to shreds.
R: Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere.
S: The house had been completely ransacked.
6. Mrs. M stood in the center of her bedroom looking at a ruined copy of the Holy book, forcing back her tears.
(a) PQRS
(b) PRQS
(c) SPRQ
(d) RSQP

139.
1. The student came late to the school.
P: He went home weeping.
Q: The watchman didn’t allow him inside the school.
R: The boy was waiting outside for some time.
S: He then decide to go home.
6. It was bad day for him.
(a) QSPR
(b) QSRP
(c) QRSP
(d) QPSR

140.
1. Freedom is first of all a personal matter.
P: A man who will not submit to the discipline of his chosen occupation is not free to be a great surgeon, or engineer, or golfer, or executive.
Q: Life imposes a drastic discipline on all living things, including human beings.
R: We are free to eat poison or jump off a tall building, but not to escape the consequences.
S: We are bound by the laws of cause and effect.
6. Nature, moreover, binds us by arbitrary limits of mind and body; we are not free to do, by whatever effort, what is beyond our capacity.
(a) QRSP
(b) RSPQ
(c) PQRS
(d) SRQP

Directions. Q.141-150: In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
141. A short poem or speech addressed to the spectators after the conclusion of a drama
(a) Prologue
(b) Dialogue
(c) Epilogue
(d) Monologue

142. One who loves books
(a) Scholar
(b) Bibliographer
(c) Teacher
(d) Bibliophile

143. Belief that war and violence are unjustified
(a) Neutralization
(b) Pessimism
(c) Naturalization
(d) Pacifism

144. A group of girls
(a) Bevy
(b) covey
(c) Troupe
(d) Coterie

145. Causing or ending in death
(a) Fatal
(b) Deadly
(c) Serious
(d) Dangerous

146. Military waking signal sounded in the morning
(a) Reveille
(b) Lullaby
(c) Anthem
(d) Soprano

147. Study of insects
(a) Ecology
(b) Embryology
(c) Entomology
(d) Biology

148. A person in his seventies
(a) Sexagenarian
(b) Septuagenarian
(c) Centurion
(d) Patriarch

149. One who has obstinate and narrow religious views
(a) Theosophist
(b) Bigot
(c) Philosopher
(d) Theologian

150. The sound of a funeral bell
(a) Knell
(b) Spell
(c) Dong
(d) Ding-dong

Directions. Q. 151-155: In these questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

151. Tell him to get out of our house.
(a) He is told to get out of our house.
(b) Let him be told to get out of our house.
(c) He might be told to get out of our house.
(d) He should be told that he may get out of our house.

152. Those who worked hard seldom obtained good marks.
(a) Good marks were seldom being obtained by those who worked hard.
(b) Good marks are seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
(c) Seldom had good marks been obtained by those who worked hard.
(d) Good marks were seldom obtained by those who worked hard.

153. Has the price-rise affected all the people?
(a) Have all the people been affected by the price-rise?
(b) Are all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(c) Had all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(d) Are all the people affected by the price-rise?

154. They pick the flowers fresh every morning.
(a) The fresh flowers are picked every morning by them.
(b) The flowers are fresh and picked every morning by them.
(c) The flowers are picked fresh every morning by them.
(d) The picked flowers are fresh every morning by them.

155. Everyone looked up to him.
(a) He was looked up to by everyone.
(b) He was looked up by everyone.
(c) He is looked up by everyone.
(d) He looks up by everyone.

Directions. Q. 156-165: In these questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d).

156. He can’t read this, nor can I.
(a) no, I never can
(b) no, I can’t
(c) no, I don’t
(d) No improvement

157. I brought four dozen of mangoes.
(a) dozens of mango
(b) dozens of mangoes
(c) dozens mangoes
(d) No improvement

158. The master was good at using pleasant names for unpleasant things in order to hoodwink the laboureres.
(a) euphemisms
(b) euphoria
(c) pleasantries
(d) No improvement

159. They had to put off until later the open-air performance because of heavy rain.
(a) postpone
(b) delay
(c) adjourn
(d) No improvement.

160. Dozens of phrases can be offered to describe style but perhaps the best one is : “Style-it is the man.”
(a) but the best one is : ” Style is the man.”
(b) but perhaps the best one is : ” Style is the man.”
(c) but the best one is : ” Style is the man.”
(d) No improvement.

161. They have bought a new car, isn’t it?
(a) haven’t they?
(b) don’t they?
(c) have they?
(d) No improvement.

162. Only a few persons can stand on entreaties.
(a) against
(b) with
(c) in
(d) No improvement.

163. I had my ears bored so I could wear my diamond ear-rings
(a) holed
(b) pricked
(c) pierced
(d) No improvement.

164. It is interesting to correspond the history of the 19^th century with its literature.
(a) corroborate
(b) correlate
(c) command
(d) No improvement.

165. Didn’t Mr. Sharma come to the office yet?
(a) Hadn’t
(b) Hasn’t
(c) Isn’t
(d) No improvement.

Directions. Q. 166-175: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

In most enterprises around the world, it is the Information Technology infrastructure that is undergoing the most rapid upgradation. Perhaps this is a direct result of the rate of …..166….. in the Information Technology industry, ……167….. with new …….168…… and business ……169…… invading our consciousness everyday. In this context, it is …..170…. of this new technology that looms……171….. as an issue …..172…. chief information officers of end-user organizations. Given the ….173…. of magnitude….174….. the investments required and associated …..175….. in human terms in order to effect change of this magnitude, this concern is hardly surprising.

166.
(a) rejection
(b) growth
(c) obsolescence
(d) magnificence

167.
(a) where
(b) hence
(c) what
(d) since

168.
(a) armies
(b) agencies
(c) enemies
(d) technologies

169.
(a) relations
(b) prospects
(c) applications
(d) agreements

170.
(a) absorption
(b) development
(c) delineation
(d) filtration

171.
(a) large
(b) wide
(c) across
(d) close

172.
(a) eluding
(b) facing
(c) confounding
(d) comprising

173.
(a) order
(b) priority
(c) quality
(d) gravity

174.
(a) in
(b) on
(c) for
(d) of

175.
(a) choices
(b) costs
(c) feelings
(d) possibilities

Directions. Q.176-180. In these questions you have one brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Passage
Every society must develop in its people a social responsibility. This is something that we, in India, have been falling short of.
We are very individualistic, and don’t relate ourselves to our society as such. Very seldom do we actually go out and do something, which is beneficial to the society and which does not have a side-benefit for ourselves, as individuals. And this is another thing that must be built into the education system.
Our young boys and girls coming out must have a feeling for our society. There is a special responsibility that you have, that we all have in building up the spirit.. We have to see that what we learn is not used only; for our own personal benefits, that every task we do is such that it benefits the weak and the poor, as Gandhiji has said.
India, today, is striving out into the modern world. We are looking ahead to new technology to high technology, new methods, new types of employment, and an new dynamism in our economic growth.
But while we look ahead, we must not forget the millions who are still Below the Poverty Line. When we look at technology, when we look at science, when we look at development, our attention must not be diverted from what is still a major block in India -the poor and deprived groups. And everything we do must be targetted in a manner that the benefit will flow to the weak, the deprived and the depressed.
176. The author says that India
(a) wants to acquire new technology.
(b) does not want new technology.
(c) already has sufficient new technology.
(d) can export technology to other countries.

177. The author suggests that
(a) the poor and the weak must benefit from new technology.
(b) the poor and week produce new technology.
(c) the new technology must help the rich.
(d) the new technology is useless to the poor and weak.

178. What value does the author want to build into the educational system?
(a) Individual must work for themselves.
(b) Individual must work for the benefit of the society without expecting any return or personal benefits.
(c) Society must work for the benefit of the individuals.
(d) Side-benefit is a must for any special work.

179. According to the author, the Indian people
(a) are socially very responsible.
(b) lack social responsibility.
(c) have several responsibilities.
(d) are highly responsible.

180. Indians do not do anything beneficial to society unless
(a) there is a benefit for themselves.
(b) it involves personal sacrifices.
(c) other individuals are benefited.
(d) the whole society benefits by it.

Directions. Q.181-190. In these questions some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [¦] corresponding to appropriate letter (a), (b) and (c). If there is no error then anser is (d).

181. I meant nothing (a) /less than (b) /to compel you to come. (c)/ No error (d).

182. Females (a)/ are not appointed (b)/ in our college. (c)/ No error (d).

183. He has read four plays (a)/ written by Shakespeare (b)/ by the end of his vacation. (c)/ No error (d).

184. The officer (a)/is angry on the clerk (b)/for not attending to the work. (c)/ No error (d).

185. Banks were developed to keep people’s money safe (a)/ and to make it available (b) / when they need it. c)/ No error (d).

186. Based on the newspaper reports, (a)/ we can conclude that (b)/ many accidents caused by reckless driving. (c)/ No error (d).

187. He walked (a)/ till the (b)/end of the street. (c)/ No error (d).

188. The strain of all (a)/ the difficulties and vexation and anxieties (b)/ are more than he could bear. (c)/ No error (d).

189. In the background they could hear John laughing and joking loudly, (a)/ John was the life and soul of  any party. (b)/ and he was cracking a joke every few minutes. (c)/ No error (d).

190. I was thinking (a)/ if I could do (b)/ anything to help. (c)/ No error (d).

Directions. Q.191-195. in these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

191. Impious
(a) Holy
(b) Mischievous
(c) Shrewd
(d) Irreverent

192. Freelance
(a) Self-betrayed
(b) Self-centred
(c) Self-employed
(d) Self-driven

193. Slither
(a) Slide
(b) Move
(c) Shake
(d) Slip

194. Apposite
(a) Contrary
(b) Bitter
(c) Appropriate
(d) Misleading

195. Scorn
(a) Ridicule
(b) Laugh
(c) Condemn
(d) Criticise

Directions. Q.196-200. in these questions, choose the word opposite to the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
196. Cursory
(a) Final
(b) Through
(c) Impulsive
(d) Customary

197. Lackadaisical
(a) Enthusiastic
(b) Intelligent
(c) Classical
(d) Irresponsible

198. Sublime
(a) Inferior
(b) Deficit
(c) Ridiculous
(d) Crooked

199. Evident
(a) Definite
(b) Careless
(c) Clear
(d) Obscure

200. Insolent
(a) Arrogant
(b) Humble
(c) Ashamed
(d) Ignorant

Answers Part - III

1. (b)	2. (a)	3. (c)	4. (a)	5. (a)
6. (d)	7. (c)	8. (c)	9. (b)	10. (d)
11. (b)	12. (a)	13. (c)	14. (d)	15. (c)
16. (d)	17. (d)	18. (c)	19. (a)	20. (a)
21. (c)	22. (b)	23. (b)	24. (a)	25. (b)
26. (d)	27. (a)	28. (c)	29. (a)	30. (d)
31. (d)	32. (a)	33. (a)	34. (c)	35. (a)
36. (b)	37. (c)	38. (b)	39. (b)	40. (b)
41. (b)	42. (a)	43. (c)	44. (b)	45. (a)
46. (b)	47. (a)	48. (d)	49. (b)	50. (a)
51. (a)	52. (b)	53. (b)	54. (a)	55. (b)
56. (d)	57. (a)	58. (b)	59. (a)	60. (c)
61. (b)	62. (c)	63. (b)	64. (a)	65. (d)
66. (c)	67. (a)	68. (c)	69. (a)	70. (b)
71. (a)	72. (a)	73. (d)	74. (b)	75. (b)

Tags: Sample Paper, Section Officer, SSC

General Awareness Sample Paper: SSC Audit Sept 2007

This is in series of the past year Question Papers for SSC (Commercial Audit) Examination. We have divided the Question Paper in four sections. In Part I we will cover General Knowledge. Please read this carefully.

Part I : General Awareness

1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.

7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny

8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.

9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall

19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.

21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) methane and ethane.
(b) methane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.

22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis

23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini

26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria

29. What is the principal one of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) ” all other things variable ”
(b) “other things increasing”
(c) “other things being equal”
(d) “all other things decreasing”

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.

35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.

40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.

41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual

42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.

46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.

47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas

48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.

49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.

50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon

51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.

52. What was the original name of “Nurjahan”?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878

54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.

55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.

56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.

57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang

58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.

59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.

60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.

61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.

62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi

63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.

64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis

65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.

66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.

67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars

68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.

69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.

70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.

71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.

72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.

73. “Slash and Burn agriculture” is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.

74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.

75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.

Answers Part - I

1. (d)	2. (d)	3. (b)	4. (c)	5. (a)
6. (d)	7. (b)	8. (b)	9. (a)	10. (b)
11. (d)	12. (a)	13. (a)	14. (b)	15. (c)
16. (a)	17. (d)	18. (a)	19. (b)	20. (a)
21. (c)	22. (b)	23. (b)	24. (a)	25. (d)
26. (c)	27. (c)	28. (d)	29. (b)	30. (a)
31. (c)	32. (c)	33. (c)	34. (a)	35. (c)
36. (d)	37. (b)	38. (a)	39. (a)	40. (b)
41. (d)	42. (a)	43. (b)	44. (a)	45. (c)
46. (d)	47. (d)	48. (d)	49. (b)	50. (a)
51. (c)	52. (d)	53. (d)	54. (b)	55. (a)
56. (b)	57. (c)	58. (d)	59. (c)	60. (d)
61. (a)	62. (a)	63. (a)	64. (d)	65. (d)
66. (a)	67. (b)	68. (b)	69. (a)	70. (b)
71. (d)	72. (d)	73. (a)	74. (d)	75. (a)

Tags: Sample Paper, Section Officer, SSC

SNAP Question Paper 2007 - English

Symbiosis National Aptitude Test (SNAP) 16 December 2007 Question Paper (Fully Solved)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

SNAP - Symbiosis National Aptitude Test for MBA Courses

Directions (Q. 1 to 6): Read the following passage and answer within its context.

The world dismisses curiosity by calling it idle, or mere idle curiosity - even though curious persons are seldom idle. Parents do their best to extinguish curiosity in their children because it makes life difficult to be faced every day with a string of unanswerable questions about what makes fire hot or why grass grows. Children whose curiosity survives parental discipline are invited to join our university. Within the university, they go on asking their questions and trying to find the answers. In the eyes of a scholar, that is mainly what a university is for. Some of the questions that scholars ask seem to the world to be scarcely worth asking let alone answering. They ask questions to minute and specialized for you and me to understand without years of explanation. If the world inquires of one of them why he wants to know the answer to a particular question he may say, especially if he is a scientist, that the answer will in some obscure way make possible a new machine or weapon or gadget. He talks that way because he knows that the world understands and respects utility. But to you who awe now part of the university, he will say that he wants to know the answer simply because he does not know it. The way a mountain climber wants to climb a mountain simply because it is there. Similarly a historian when asked by outsiders why he studies history may come out with argument that he has learnt to repeat on such occasions, something about knowledge of the past making it possible to understand the present and mould the future. But if you really want to know why a historian studies the past, the answer is much simpler; something happened, and he would like to know what. All this does not mean that the answers which scholars find to their questions have no consequences. They may have enormous consequences but these seldom form the reason for asking the question or pursuing the answers. It is true that scholars can be put to work answering questions for the sake of the consequences as thousands are working now, for example, in search of a cure for cancer. But this is not the primary function of the scholar, for the consequences are usually subordinate to the satisfaction of curiosity.

1. Common people consider some of the questions asked by scholars as unimportant

(a) since they are not worth asking or answering.

(b) because the question is related to new machines and gadgets.

(c) because the common man doesn’t understand questions without years of explanations.

(d) scholars ask very minute, specialized questions beyond the comprehension of the common man.

2. In the statement ‘that is mainly what a university is for’, ‘that’ refers to

(a) parents refusal to answer questions.

(b) children’s curiosity that survives parental strictures.

(c) questions not worth answering.

(d) the aim and scope of the university to provide an opportunity to curious minds to find out the answers to their questions.

3. According to the passage the general public respects

(a) new inventions.

(b) any useful invention.

(c) any invention that makes life easier for them.

(d) a scientist who invents gadgets and machines for them

4. The writer compares the scientist to

(a) a historian and mountain climber.

(b) a historian.

(c) a mountain climber.

(d) a scholar.

5. The primary function of a scholar is different from the search for a cure for cancer because

(a) the answers to the scholar’s question have no consequence unlike the results

for the research involving a cure for cancer

(b) the answer sought by the scholar is selfish unlike the consequences of cancer

research which are for the common weal.

(c) the primary function of a scholar is satisfaction of his mental curiosity, while

research involving a cure for cancer demands a constant, systematic and planned pursuit by several scholars.

(d) several scholars work for a cancer cure while a single scholar works with a selfish motive.

6. Idle curiosity means

(a) curiosity is lazy.

(b) idle people are curious.

(c) curiosity is apt.

(d) casual curiosity.

7. Find the correct match of definition/ meaning with usage for the word:

WOULD

Definition / meaning

(a) willingness

(b) obstinacy persistence

(c) determination

(d) improbable or real condition

Usage

(5) He would go for a walk even when it was raining.

(6) He would do as you say.

(7) He beat the ox, but it wouldn’t move.

(8) If you came across a snake what would you do?

(a) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7

(b) 1-6, 2-7, 3-5, 4-8

(c) 1-5, 2-7, 3-8, 4-6

(d) 1-7, 2-5, 3-6, 4-8

8. Choose the most appropriate passive construction of the sentence:

‘He is doing his job well’.

(a) His job is done well by him.

(b) His job is being done well.

(c) He has been doing his job well

(d) His job is being well done.

9. There are three underlined words below, followed by their usages. Determine the sentences, in which the use of words is correct or appropriate.

Pray, Prey, Prying

(a) If you pray with faith, they say, it will be answered.

(b) He has fallen a prey to cheats

(c) Prying into the affairs of others is bad.

(1) a and b

(2) a and c

(3) a, b and c

(4) b and c

Directions (Q. 10 to 14): The following is an except from a recent article by David Ewing Duncan. Read the passage and answer the questions within its context.

Eye surgeon Virendar Sangwan has perfected a procedure so cutting - edge that most who have tried it have failed. In an operating theatre in the central Indian City of Hyderabad, he surgically implants corneas grown in a Petri dish from stem cells by his colleague Geeta Vemuganti in patients with damaged eyes. Together they perform about 80 corneal regeneration procedures a year, making the L.V. Prasad Eye Institute, where they work, one of the most prolific facilities in the world using stem cells to regenerate tissues of any kind.

The Sangwan-Vemuganti team uses stem cells found in the tissues of living adults, not ones derived from embryos. Teams all over the world are working with adult stem cells, trying to coax them to regrow cells in hearts, brains, livers and other organs, but progress is slow. Besides corneas, scientists have had some success regrowing skin cells and bone tissues, but those procedures remain experimental. “A number of programs around the world have tried to perfect this treatment, but they have had bad outcomes,” says University of Cincinnati eye surgeon and stem cell specialist Edward Holland. “It is impressive what they are doing at Prasad”. In addition to the Hyderabad project, only Holand’s program and a half-dozen others in the world conduct operations using corneas grown from stem cells.

The treatment uses stem cells harvested from the limbus, located where the cornea touches the white of the eye. For those with damaged corneas, these cells- called “limbic” and “conjunctiva” - are harvested from a patient’s good eye, if he has one, or from a close relative. They are placed in a Petri dish and chemically tweaked to grow into the lower layer of a cornea, called epithelium. It is then transplanted into thee eye of the patient where in most cases it takes hold and grows. In 56% of the cases at the Prasad Institute, patient could still see clearly after 40 months later.

Indians are well known for reverse engineering, meaning they can deduce hos drugs are made in order to produce generic versions. But in this case, Sangwan and Vemuganti, a pathologist, developed the technique on their own from reading papers and running experiments in the lab. Sangwan says he had a number of patients with burned eyes who could not be helped with standard corneal transplants from cadavers, so he persuaded Vemuganti to try growing corneas in her lab. “You know how to grow cells, and I know how to do the transplant surgrey,” Vemuganti recalls his saying. “Why don’t we work together?” she smiles and shakes her head. “I had no clue, if this was going to work.”

Vemuganti’s major innovation was developing a platform on which to grow corneas. First she designed a circular glass tube about the size of a stack of coins. They she overlaid the lass with tissue from a human placenta which is “a good surface to grow corneas on,” she says. After that she placed stem cells in four places around a circle, added a growth medium and watched the corneas begin to grow.

Commercial interests among stem cell companies for the procedure has been scant because of the perceived small volume of patients, says venture capitalist Antoun Nabhan of Bay Capital, who sits on the board of Cellerant, a leading stem cell company in San Carlos, Calif. But corneal stem cell treatment may have wider applications, say ophthalmologist lvan Schwab of University of California at Davis. “There stem cells are similar to others in the body that make mucous membrane,” he says, “These techniques of growing stem cells might one day be used to treat mucous-membrane tissue in the sinuses, bladder, and other organs.”

10. According to the article Sangwan-Vemuganti team’s cutting-edge procedure of implanting cornea grown from stem cells is considered a major advancement by the experts because

(a) they derive stems cells from embryos.

(b) their labs are customized to grow stem cells.

(c) they regrow cells in hearts, brains, livers with stems cells from tissues of

living adults

(d) they derive stem cells from tissues of living adults and grow cells in labs.

11. Sangwan- Vemuganti procedure is carried out on

(a) Patients requiring any corneal transplant

(b) Patients with damaged corneas

(c) Patients with damaged eyes of any kind

(d) None of the above

12. The world recognizes this Indian innovation because Indian scientists are normally known

(a) to be good at analyzing and finding out a method of how an existing drug is

made.

(b) as they are good researchers of drugs.

(c) as they are good at carrying out experiments to create generic drugs

(d) as they are able to carry out drug trials on large samples.

13. The pathologist, Vemuganti, started growing cornea in a Petri dish

(a) by following procedures published in research papers

(b) by inventing a totally new procedure

(c) by experimenting with procedures published in journals

(d) by following the instructions of the transplant surgeon.

14. In the context of the passage chose the correct set of meanings for the words:

‘platform’ and ‘generic’

(a) Lab table; related to genes

(b) Method; related to genes

(c) Lab experiments; without a brand name

(d) Methodology; without a brand name

15. Choose the option which is closest in meaning to the word

SUBTLE

(a) Innocent

(b) Elusive

(c) Dangerous

(d) Insidious

16. The following sentence has a missing punctuation mark, choose the right answer.

My mother who is from the village is very superstitious.

(a) Brackets

(b) Comma

(c) Semicolon

(d) Apostrophe

17. For the pair of sentences below choose the right option.

(1) Those are them

(2) Those are they.

(a) The first sentence has an error

(b) The second sentence is erroneous.

(c) Both sentences are incorrect.

(d) Both sentences are correct.

Directions (Q. 18 to 22): Read the following passage and answer within its context.

TRIPs agreement provides a comprehensive set of global trade rules for the protection of copyright patents, trademarks, industrial designs, trade secrets, semiconductor lay out designs and geographical indications, that apply to all the member- countries irrespective of their levels of development, natural and human endowments and history. Every members- country has been asked by the WTO to amend its national patent law to conform to that universal globalised format for legislation relating to pharmaceutical, agrochemical, food, allow, etc.

Under Article 65, the developed countries have been asked to change their laws within another five years, and the less developed countries within an additional five years. The least developed countries have been asked to make those changes by 2005 AD.

This attempt at global standardization and uniformity by way of TRIPs agreement is in conflict with the main trust of the Rio Earth Summit of 1992 that set out the conditions for sustainable development. These two reveal tow contrasting types of international approaches and norms.

While the 1992 Earth Summit and the 1993 Convention on Bio-Diversity (CBD) focused on ‘diversity’ as being fundamental to sustain life and development, TRIPs and WTO are pushing for ‘conformity’ to international standardized norms on patents, services. Labour, investment and what not irrespective of their history, ecology, level of economic development, etc. But despite their diametrical opposed viewpoints , 170 countries signed CBD upholding the need for diversity, and 50 countries signed the TRIPs agreement in 1994 claming the urgency of uniformity, with a very large element of common names (130) in both.

The Convention on Bio-Diversity (CBD) in its Article, 16.5 specifically asserts the intellectual properly right must not be in conflict with conservation and sutainable use of bio-diversity, a provision that has been totally ignored by those who composed the TRIPs agreements. While in case of agriculture the higher yield of patented products induces the farmers to switch from a more varied production pattern, the resulting narrowing of genetic base makes the economy and society more vulnerable to plant disease and epidemics. It is true that the move towards cultivation of a smaller number of higher yielding varieties and the uniform spread of the same variety over a large space predates the present debate on patent, particularly since the introduction of the green revolution technology in the mid-sixties, but there can be no doubt that the latter has brought about a qualitative change in the scenario and has created possibility of a vast quantitative change too in that direction. So far no attempt has been made to reconcile the two conflicting approaches of CBD and TRIPs. If diversity is so important for sustaining life, how can WTO demand conformity to standardized global formats?

18. The author points out that intellectual properly rights and their administration mechanism is

(a) throttling the interest of global bio-diversity.

(b) working to help sustain global bio-diversity.

(c) being sustained by global bio-diversity.

(d) what the global bio-diversity needs.

19. Which of the following has not been said by the author in the passage?

(a) A high number of countries have signed both CBD and TRIPs two

conflicting treaties.

(b) A narrow genetic base, if stuck to for long, is fraught with danger.

(c) Although a nondiscriminatory approach has been followed in the applicability of TRIPs, there has been a confessional attitude in prescribing a time frame for Transition, as per needs of the respective countries.

(d) The author is supportive of international conventions and treats such as TRIPs, CBD, etc.

20. Out of the countries that signed CBD, the percentage of those that signed the TRIPs also, is

(a) 76.5

(b) 74.5

(c) 78.5

(d) 80.2

21. According to the author, a higher-yield seed variety is not always welcome as it also ultimately leads to

(a) diseases among the consumers

(b) disease among the plants

(c) monopoly of developed countries

(d) monopoly of developed countries.

22. As per the TRIPs agreement not much differentiation is made between a developed country such as the USA and an undeveloped country such as Sudan. This is

(a) definitely true

(b) probably true

(c) probably false

(d) definitely false

23. A single word equivalent for the statement “Speak falsely with deliberate intent’ is

(a) repudiate

(b) programme

(c) disparage

(d) equivocate

24. Choose the word with the correct spelling.

(a) paraphernalia

(b) programme

(c) pediatrics

(d) beserk

25. Which two sentences in the following convey the same idea? Choose from the combinations listed below:

(1) Wasn’t there any checking at the airport?

(2) I want to know if there was any checking at the airport.

(3) I wonder if there should have been any checking at the airport?

(4) There should have been checking at the airport.

(a) 2, 3

(b) 1,4

(c) 3,4

(d) 2,4

26. Chose the most appropriate sentence from the following:

(a) You should at once report it to the concerned authority

(b) You should report it at once, to the authority concerned.

(c) You should report it at once, to the concerned authority.

(d) You should at once report it to the authority concerned.

27. Find the correct match of grammatical function with usage for the word:

AFTER

Grammatical function

(1) adjective

(2) adverb

(3) conjunction

(4) preposition

Usage

(5) You may go after having your lunch

(6) It appears to be the after effect of the disease

(7) Many graduates are hankering after jobs

(8) He came soon after

(a) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7

(b) 1-6, 2-5, 3-8, 4-7

(c) 1-5, 2-8, 3-7, 4-6

(d) 1-6, 2-8, 3-5, 4-7

28. Neophyte is the opposite of

(a) student

(b) clown

(c) veteran

(d) professional

29. Find the maximum number of times that any one of the given words fits the set of sentences.

disabled

flimsy crippled lame

(1) Don’t make ______________ excuse.

(2) Liberalization may have _____________ smaller manufacturers.

(3) Being a defaulter at the stock exchange makes him a _________duck.

(4) A ___________ person may limp.

(a) in all the four sentences

(b) in three sentences

(c) in two sentences

(d) in only one.

30. Which of the following does not make a sensible word/ phrase when added to the given word?

FIRE

(a) fly

(b) engine

(c) stick

(d) escape

31. Arrange the sentence 1,2,3,4 to form a logical sequence between sentences I and II. Choose the alternative where the four combinations make a meaningful sentence.

I. We all value having the freedom

1. which many of us fail to honour

2. to make the choices we want in our careers.

3. but with great freedom comes great responsibility

4. so most companies fall prey to the policies which become rigid

II. and that’s probably one reason we find most companies not following what they preach

(a) 1, 3, 4, 2

(b) 2, 3, 1, 4

(c) 1, 4, 2, 3

(d) 3, 2, 1, 3

Directions (Q. 32 to 34): Read the edited excerpt of an article by Nelson Vinod Moses and answer the questions in this context.

A successful non- resident Indian employed in the United States returns to a backward Indian village and transforms the lives of the villagers. Sounds familiar? At 31, Ashwin Naik is pacing through the path Shah Rukh Khan traced in his offbeat Bollywood movie, Swades. Naik had just quit his cushy job in a genomics firm in the US to join MIT Sloan School of Business. With a month in hand, he headed home and traveled through the remote areas of Banglkot district in Karnataka. The woeful social conditions he saw moved him. Naik chucked the MBA course and in six months set up Vaatsalya Healthcare, a rural healthcare delivery system.

In February 2005, Vaatsaly’s first hospital opened in Hubli. Two more centres were opened in Gadag and Karwar to offer specialist services of surgeons and facilities such as physiotherapy for children suffering from cerebral palsy. “We introduced pediatric surgery for infants below six months,” say Naik, “Else, patients would have to be taken to distant cities of Hobli or Bangalore.” Naik plans 100 more units in five states in the next three years. Mere charity by an affluent, middle - class professional? Far from it. Vaatsalya is one among rapidly spreading ‘for profit’ social enterprises that serves ‘for profit’ social enterprises that serves the poor and brings in profit. Mumbai - based Ziqitza, an ambulance services company, is another. It never refuses a patient for money, and charges Rs. 50 to Rs. 200.

Done fleetingly in India and elsewhere till now; entrepreneurial minds with a social conscience are methodically creating such models at a greater pace. “There has been a boom in the past two years,” says Varun Sahni, country director of Acumen Fund, a US- based social fund that invests in companies that target low income communities “Currently, there are about 1,000 in India.”

The timing seems perfect. There is a wide market acceptance and funding has been coming in easily. These enterprises work across a swathe areas including healthcare, education, rural energy, agriculture arts and crafts, banking and more. ‘ For profit’ entrepreneurs are obsessed with social and environmental impact in addition to the financial returns. Since they are answerable to the investors, they try expanding the business rapidly; SKS Microfinance, for instances, started in 1998 and has now over 900,000 customers, 440 branches, and an outstanding loan disbursement of over Rs. 452 crore as of August 2007.

32. Identify the appropriate business model of the kind of enterprise by the author.

(a) Servicing societies at no profit

(b) Profiting from poor people

(c) Setting up enterprises for masses of low-income groups on experimental

basis

(d) Setting up enterprises for social causes for profit and expand rapidly

33. Which of the following companies does not illustrate the idea explained by the author?

(a) SKS Microfinance

(b) Acumen Fund

(c) Ziqitza

(d) Vaatsalya Healthcare

34. According to the author, which of the following options describes ‘for profit’ entrepreneurs most appropriately?

(a) NRI’s paying back to their motherland.

(b) Those affluent, middle-class professionals treating it as charity.

(c) Those who work towards getting financial returns on social business by

expanding quickly.

(d) Those who have sympathetic investors for their business ideas for poor.

35. A contextual usage is provided for the word below. Pick the word that is most inappropriate. MALINGER: The young man made it a point to malinger in spite of the assigned work load.

(a) Wander

(b) Laze

(c) Evade

(d) Argue

36. The following is a scrambled sentence with the segments marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. Choose the alternative with the order of segments that best reconstruct the sentence.

1. For all the padre’s rhetoric about the English as God’s Chosen People, the

padre had a whole tribe of Anglo-Indian first cousins.

2. Padre Rotton was an even more striking case.

3. By various Indian wives, all of whom were at that moment engaged in

fighting on the rebel side in Avadh, where they took an active part in

besieging the British Residency in Lucknow.

4. These included James Rotton who could not speak English and the twenty-

two Muslim sons of his convert cousin, Felix Rotton.

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 2, 1, 4, 3

(c) 1, 4, 2, 3

(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

37. Choose the sentence in which the given word is used correctly (grammatically and semantically) ALMOST

(a) As I crossed the road a scooterist almost hit me.

(b) Crossing the road a scooterist hit me almost.

(c) A scooterist across the road almost his me.

(d) A scooterist almost hit me crossing the road.

38. In the following sentence choose the erroneous segment.

We took a taxi (A)/So we would be on time (B)/ for the meeting (C)

(a) Error in segment A

(b) Error in segment B

(c) Error in segment C

(d) No error

39. Find the odd one out from the group of words which are related in some way or the other.

(a) Din

(b) Cacophony

(c) Racket

(d) Cadence

40. Fill in the blanks with the correct alternative.

Caw is to crows as___is to cows.

(a) bleat

(b) snort

(c) low

(d) bellow

Download SNAP 2007 Question Paper for English as PDF

Answer Keys

1) (d)	2) (d)	3) (b)	4) (a)	5) (c)
6) (b)	7) (b)	(b)	9) (c)	10) (d)
11) (b)	12) (c)	13) (b)	14) (d)	15) (b)
16) (b)	17) (c)	18) (a)	19) (d)	20) (a)
21) (b)	22) (a)	23) (b)	24) (c)	25) (b)
26) (d)	27) (d)	28) (c)	29) (c)	30) (d)
31) (b)	32) (d)	33) (b)	34) (c)	35) (d)
36) (b)	37) (c)	38) (b)	39) (d)	40) (c)

Tags: 2007, English, Question Paper, Sample Paper, SNAP

Sample Question Paper - Marketing - Bank Entrance Exam

After many requests for Questions on Banking and Marketing, today we are providing a set for practice. This will prove helpful for the Bank of Baroda and other Banking Exams to be conducted in coming weeks

1. A prospect means

a) any customer who walks into the bank

b) an employee of the bank

c) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank’s product or service

d) a depositor of the bank’

e) a borrower of the bank

2. A lead means

a) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank’s product

b) a political leader

c) a religious leader

d) a bank chairman

e) None of these

3. Innovation means

a) Compensation

b) inspiration

c) additional perquisites

d) implementing new ideas or new methods

e) None of these

4. A Call means

a) calling on friends

b) calling on bank employees

c) calling on prospective customers

d) to make telephone calls

e) calling on relatives

5. The Traditional Marketing style involves

a) Telemarketing

b) Digital Marketing

c) Indirect Marketing

d) Direct Marketing

e) All of these

6. Modern Method of Marketing include

a) Publicity on the net

b) Advertisement on the net

c) Soliciting business through e-mails

d) Tele marketing

e) All of these

7. A true marketing requires

a) Command and other mindset

b) Control Mindset

c) Passive mindset

d) Active mindset

e) None of these

8. Which of the following sentences is true?

a) Marketing is not required in a Buyers’ Market